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Recalled Mcqs (198)
2 questions were repeated two times in the same paper(196 + 2 = 198)

Note: Name of all the contributors shall be updated with respective mcqs soon as a recognition of the hardwork they have put in. For now,we are just updating Nick Names of some of the Contributors.

Anaesthesiology
1. Which of the following drugs causes Dissociative Anaesthesia ?
A. Diazepam
B. Propofol
C. Ketamine
D. Midazolam

Ans. Ketamine

2. Which of the following is true about xenon anaesthesia ?
A. Slow induction & recovery
B. Low blood solubility
C. Non explosive
D. Cardiotoxic

Ans. Slow induction & recovery

Contributor: Dr. Kajan

3. On anaesthesia, dipping in EEG is due to ?
A. Early hypoxia

Ans. Early hypoxia

Anatomy
1. Meralgia paresthetica occurs due to the involvement of ?
A. Medical cutaneous nerve
B. Lateral cutaneous nerve
C. Genitofemoral nerve
D. ?
Ans. Lateral cutaneous nerve

Explanation: Meralgia paresthetica refers to the pain along the anterolateral part of the thigh due to entrapment of the Lateral Femoral Cutaneous Nerve as it passes below the Inguinal Ligament

2. All these structures pass posterior to the diaphragm form Thorax to Abdomen, except ?
A. Aorta
B. Azygos vein
C. Thoracic duct
D. Greater splachnic nerve

Ans. C/D

Contributor: Dr. Kajan, Dr. Ponnu

Explanation:
Thoracic duct passes from Abdomen to Thorax.

3. Which of the following is true about posterior cruciate ligament ?
A. prevents posterior dislocation of tibia
B. prevents anterior dislocation of tibia
C. posterior cruciate ligament is relaxed during flexion of knee
D. is intasynovial

Ans. prevents posterior dislocation of tibia

4. Which of the following is not true regarding Trigone of bladder ?
A. Smooth mucosa
B. Loosely attached to underlying muscle
C. Transitional epithelium lines it
D. It is a remant of mesonephric duct opening into posturogenital sinus

Ans. Loosely attached to underlying muscle

5. Difference between cervical and thoracic verteba ?
A. Foramen transversarium
B. Superior articular facet on cervical vertebra

Ans. Foramen transversarium

6. Neck of fibula is related to which nerve ?
A. Common peroneal nerve

Ans. Common peroneal nerve

7. Which of the following is not a collateral in IVC obstruction ?
A. Superior and inferior epigastric
B. Iliolumbar and posterior intercostal
C. Azygos?

Ans. Superior and inferior epigastric

8. All of the following are supports of uterus except ?
A. Transverse cervical ligament
B. Uterosacral ligament
C. Broad ligament
D. Pelvic diaphragm / Urogenital diaphragm

Ans. Broad ligament

Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava
Reference: BDC, 3rd, Vol2, Pg-320

Biochemistry
1. Defect in alpha 5 of typeIV collagen seen in ?
A. Alport's syndrome
B. Thin membrane disease

Ans. Alport's syndrome

Explanation: Alport's syndrome has defect in alpha 5 where as Thin membrane has defect in alpha 4.

2. Where does glucocorticoids bind in the DNA receptor site ?
A. Zinc finger motiff
B. Leucine zipper motiff
C. Helix turn helix motiff

Ans. Zinc finger motiff

3. The function of cellular cytochrome C is ?
A. Apoptosis
B. Cell Necrosis
C. Electron transport

Ans. ?Apoptosis

4. Amyloid beta pleated sheets ?
A. Scanning electron microscopy
B. X-ray crystallography
C. Apple green florescence in congo red staining
D. Polarizing electron microscope

Ans. X-ray crystallography

5. Genetic code is ?
A. Degenerate

Ans. Degenerate

6. Which of the following agent is used to send a blood sample for estimation of blood glucose level ?
A. E. D. T. A
B. Potassium – oxalate
C. K – oxalate + NaF
D. K – oxalate + NaI

Ans. K - oxalate + NaF

7. There is distance of 40nm between 2 fibrils of collagen linked by 1 of the following and it acts as a site of calcium deposition, it is ?
A. Fe
B. Protein
C. Carbohydrate
D. Zn

Community Medicine
1. Specificity in a screening test measures ?
A. True positives
B. True negatives
C. False positives
D. False negatives

Ans. True Negatives

2. The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in ?
A. Ground nut oil
B. Palm oil
C. Margarine
D. Soyabean oil

Ans. Soyabean oil

3. All of the following indicators are included in Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI) except ?
A. Infant mortality rate
B. Life expentancy at age one
C. Literacy rate
D. Per capita income

Ans. Per capita income

4. Statistical analysis can be best correlated between lab reports of a new test and a gold standard test by ?
A. Correlation
B. Regression

Ans. Correlation

5. Which of the following is not included in the SAFE strategy for Trachoma ?
A. Facial cleanliness
B. Enviornmental cleanliness
C. Screening
D. Antibiotics

Ans. Screening

Explanation:
Lid Surgery = S
Antibiotics to treat infection = A
Facial cleanliness = F
Enviornmental changes = E
So, screening is the answer

6. Active seeking for cause in apparently healthy individuals is known as ?
A. Surveillance
B. Notification
C. Screening
D. Case finding

Ans. Screening

7. Lice is not a vector in ?
A. Q fever
B. Epidemic typhus
C. Trench fever
D. Relapsing fever

Q fever

8. Which of the following is used for the measurement of the chlorine demand of water ?
A. Berkfeld filter
B. Chlorometer
C. Double pot method
D. Horrock’s apparatus

Ans. Horrock’s apparatus

9. True regarding ASHA (Accredited Social Health Activists) ?
A. A part of national mental health program
B. Replaces anganwadi worker in ICDS program
C. For 1000 population there is one ASHA worker
D. From recent health policy of 2001, they are a part of social and sanitation management

Ans.For 1000 population there is one ASHA worker

Reference: http://www.mohfw.nic.in/Frequently%20Asked%20Questions-March%2022,%202005.pdf
Contributor: Dr. Shashank Sood

10. Which of the following does not fall into problem village ?
A. where water is not available with in 1.6 km
B. where there is risk of dracunculiosis
C. where water is not available at depth of 15 m
D. where water has impurities containing salts

Ans. where there is risk of dracunculiosis

Contributor: Dr. Shashank Sood

Reference: http://megphed.gov.in/dept/backgrd.pdf

Explanation:
Because Dracunculiosis is eradicated from India.

The Bhore Committee (1946) and the Environmental Committee (1949) recommended comprehensive plans to provide water supply and sanitation on a priority basis. No concerted efforts could be taken to implement the recommendation. In the year 1954, The Government of India provided assistance to the states to establish special investigation divisions in the fourth Five Year Plan to carry out identification of the problem villages. A 'problem' village was defined as one where no source of safe water is available, within a distance of 1.6 km or where is available at a depth more than 15 metres or water source has excess salinity, iron, fluorides and other toxic materials or where water is exposed to the risk of Cholera or Guinea Worm.

11. All are true about Point Source Epidemic except ?
A. There are no secondary waves
B. Sudden rise & gradual fall
C. Cases occur within a single Incubation period

Ans. Sudden rise & gradual fall

12. Best research study ?
A. Meta analysis
B. RCT with double blinding
C. Retrospective cohort study

Ans. RCT with double blinding

13. Efficiency of the program for iodine deficiency disorders against hypothyrodism can be assessed by ?
A. Neonatal thyroxine levels
B. Goiter in pregnancy
C. Goiter in age group of 12 to 18 levels
D. Soil iodine levels

Ans. Neonatal thyroxine levels

Explanation:
"Neonatal hypothyroidism is a sensitive pointer to environmental iodine deficiency and can thus be an effective indicator for monitoring the impact of a programme".

Reference: Park, 17th, Pg-440
Contributor: Dr. Ponnu

14. Eicosapentaenoic is maximum in ?
A. Soyabeans
B. Corn oil
C. Fish oil

Ans. Fish oil

15. Cataract outreach approach does not include ?
A. Fixed reach hospital surgeries
B. Out reach eye camps

Ans. Out reach eye camps

Explanation:
"Revised strategies
To shift from the eye camp approach to a fixed facility surgical approach"

Reference: Park, 17ed, Pg-318
Contributor: Ponnu

16. Which fatty acid is present in Breast Milk ?
A. Linoleic acid
B. Arachidonic acid
C. DHA(docosa hexanoic acid)

Ans. DHA(docosa hexanoic acid)

17. PUFA consumption ?
A. Lowers total cholesterol and LDL

Ans. ?

18. Which index has indicators for both acute and chronic malnutrition ?
A. weight for age
B. height for age
C. weight for height
D. increase in body weight and linear growth

Ans. increase in body weight and linear growth

19. Socialization of medicine ?
A. free government services for all
B. decreased competition among practitioners for clients
C. equal utilisation of health services
D. it in itself is adequate for distribution of health services

Ans. it in itself is adequate for distribution of health services

Contributor: Dr. Abhisek

Reference: Park, 18th, Pg-9

20. A new test gives 9.4, 9.6, 9.8, 12.1, 10.2, 10.8, 9.6 etc by colorimetric method it was determined 10.2 ?
A. high validity and high reliability
B. high validity and low reliability
C. low validity and high reliability
D. low validity and low reliability

Ans. ?D

21. Which of the following is the cause for endemic ascites ?
A. Sanguinarine
B. Aflatoxin
C. Pyrrozolidine
D. Ergot

Ans. Pyrrozolidine

22. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between two countries. This is done because of the difference in ?
A. Causes of death
B. Numerators
C. Age distributions
D. Denominators

Ans. Age distributions

23. A patient is clinically diagnosed to have SLE and 6 tests have been ordered,out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative. To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know ?A. Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test
B. Incidence of SLE and predicitive value of each test
C. Incidence and prevalence of SLE
D. Relative risk of SLE in this patient

Ans. Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test

24. Any loss or abnormality of psychological, physiological or anatomical structure or function is known as ?
A. Impairment
B. Disability
C. Handicap

Ans. Impairment

25. In a study consumption of anti-asthmatic drug and increased death was seen in UK from 1960 – 1975. This is an example of ?
A. Experimental study
B. Cohort study
C. Ecological study
D. Case reference study

Ans. Case reference study?

26. RNTCP quick diagnosis of Tuberculosis is done by ?
A. Slides of sputum

Ans. Slides of sputum

Dermatology
1. True regarding Pityriasis rosea is that it is ?
A. an autoimmune disease
B. a chronic relapsing disease
C. a self limiting condition
D. caused by a dermatophyte

Ans. a self limiting condition

2. An abattoir worker develops a pustule which later turns into necrosed ulcer. Scrappings from ulcer base should be stained with ?
A. Poly chrome methylene blue
B. PAS

Ans. Poly chrome methylene blue

Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

3. Mother with asthma, child with itchy lesions on arms and legs, etc ?
A. Atopic dermatitis
B. Infectious eczematoid dermatitis

Ans. Atopic dermatitis

4. All are true regarding Mycosis fungoides except ?
A. It is the most common cutaneous lymphoma
B. Erythroderma is present
C. Indolent course and good prognosis

Ans. Erythroderma is present

FMT
1. In judicial hanging in India, the knot is placed at ?
A. Below chin
B. Angle of jaw
C. Occiput

Ans. A(Reddy)/B(Parikh)

2. Chills & rigors like malaria occurs in which poisoning ?
A. Arsenic
B. Red Phosphorus
C. Mg poisoning
D. Zn poisoning

Ans. Zn poisoning

3. Brain is not spared in which poisoning ?

4. Nile blue test is for ?
A. Foetal lung maturity

Ans. Foetal lung maturity

5. Gustafson method of identification ?
A. Transparency of root

Ans. Transparency of root

Gynaecology
1. Red degeneration of Fibroid occurs most commonly during ?
A. Ist trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. Puerperium

Ans. 2nd trimester

2. HRT cannot relieve ?
A. Vaginal dryness
B. Hot flushes
C. Osteoporosis
D. Cardiovascular disease

Ans. Cardiovascular disease

3. PAP smear shows carcinoma in situ, next step ?
A. Colposcopy & biopsy
B. Conization

Ans. Colposcopy & biopsy

4. Absent uterus in girl with Bilateral Hernia and Primary amenorrhoea with no pubic hairs and fully developed breasts ?
A. Mullerian agenesis
B. Androgen insensitivity syndrome

Ans. Androgen insensitivity syndrome

5. Infertile female with bilateral cornual block, best Rx ?
A. In-vitro fertilization
B. Hydrotubation
C. Tuboplasty

Ans. In-vitro fertilization

6. Mechanism of "criminal abortion" by a stick ?
A. Infection & inflammation of endometrium
B. Uterine contraction
C. Placental separation
D. Stimulation of nerve

Ans. Uterine contraaction

Contributor: Dr. Abhishek

7. Lactional amenorrhoea is due to ?
A. Prolactin suppressing GnRH
B. Prolactin suppressing FSH

Ans. Prolactin supressing GnRH

Contributor: Dr. Kajan

Reference: Ganong, 22nd, Pg-452

Medicine
1. Drug of choice in Absence seizures is ?
A. Gabapentin
B. Phenytoin
C. Phenobarbitone
D. Valproic acid
(?Topiramate)

Ans. Valproic acid

2. Ham’s test is for ?
A. GPI anchors
B. Mannose binding protein
C. Spherocytosis
D. PNH

Ans. PNH

3. Which enzyme is not elevated in a case of a young person complaining of yellowing discolouration of stool, icterus and clay colored stools ?
A. Gamma Glutamyl Transferase
B. Alkaline phosphatase
C. Glutamate dehydrogenase
D. 5'-Nucleotidase

Ans. Glutamate dehydrogenase

4. Constrictive pericarditis is rarest with ?
A. Tuberculous effusion
B. Staph effusion
C. Post surgical
D. Acute Rheumatic Fever

Ans. Acute Rheumatic Fever

5. A 22 yr old lady with progressively increasing pallor and jaundice, in peripheral smear spherocytes. Most appropriate test is ?
A. MCHC
B. Osmotic fragility
C. Coombs test

Ans. ?

6. Which of the following is not a limb girdle dystrophy ?
A. Dystrophinopathies
B. Sarcoglycanopathies
C. Dysferlinopathies
D. Calpainopathies

Ans. ?A

7. 60 year old man with 1 episode of gross painless haematuria. Invesgitation of choice ?
A. USG KUB
B. X ray KUB
C. Urine routine microscopy
D. Urine microscopy for malignant cells

Ans. Urine microscopy for malignant cells

8. Which juice daily intake prevents UTI ?
A. Rasberry
B. Grapefruit juice / grapes
C. Oranges
D. Cranberry

Ans. Cranberry

Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

9. Took peanut -> Neck swelling and tongue swelling ?
A. Angioneurotic edema

Ans. Angioneurotic edema

10. In MS the approved therapy is ?
A. Interferon alpha
B. Interferon gamma
C. Interferon beta
D. Infliximab

Ans. Interferon beta

11. All are true about Carey Coomb's murmur except ?
A. AR
B. Diastolic
C. Low pitched
D. Acute rheumatic fever

Ans. AR

12. For syncope which of the following will be least diagnostic ?
A. PET scan
B. Holter monitoring
C. Electrophystological study
D. Till table test

Ans. PET Scan

13. Most common lymphoproliferative disease in post transplant patients involves ?
A. B cells
B. T cells
C. NK cells
D. Null cells

Ans. B cells

14. Which of the following diseases affects only motor neurons ?
A. Spinocerebellar ataxia
B. Progressive supranuclear palsy
C. Corticobasillar degeneration

Ans. ?

15. Pancytopemia with bone marrow cellularity is seen in all except ?
A. G6PD deficiency
B. Myelodysplasia
C. PNH
D. Megaloblastic anemia

Ans. G6PD deficiency

16. Nephrotic range proteinuria occurs in ?
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
B. Nodular glomerulosclerosis
C. Membranous glomerulosclerosis

Ans. ?A/C

17. All of the following are used in the treatment of H. Pylori except ?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Omeprazole
C. Mosapride
D. Metronidazole

Ans. Mosapride

18. Serum Ta 140, LDL-600 ?
A. Tender xanthomas
B. Plantar xanthomas
C. Tuberoeruptive xanthomas
D. Lipemia retinalis

Ans. Tender xanthomas

Explanation:
LDL is increased in typeIIA Hyperlipidemia --> TENDON/TUBEROUS XANTHOMAS
In TYPE I Hyperlipidemia Chylomicrons are increased --> ERUPTIVE XANTHOMAS

19. Blood creatinine levels are most accurately assessed by ?
A. Enzyme assay
B. Jappes Test?

Ans. ?

20. Increased Serum Iron, Increased Serum Ferritin, Decreased TIBC, Increased % Saturation, is suggestive of ?
A. Siderblastic anemia
B. Anemia of chronic disease
C. Iron deficiency anemia
D. Thalassemia minor

Ans. ?A/B

21. Specific neuronal injury ?
A. Supranuclear
B. Cerebral degeneration

Ans. ?

22. All are true about communicability of malaria except ?
A. Gametocyte in 4-5 days in blood in P. vivax
B. Gametocyte in 10-12 days in blood in P. falciparum

Ans. ?C / D

Contributor: Dr. Abhisek

Reference: Park, 18th, Pg-204

23. Surest sign of acute pyelonephritis ?
A. Leucocyte esterase
B. Casts

Ans. ?

Microbiology
1. A patient presented with cough with expectoration sputum. Culture shows gram negative organisms from only charcol extract agar, the organism is ?
A. Listeria monocytogenes
B. M. catarrhalis
C. B. malli/pseudomallei
D. Legionella

Ans. Legionella

2. Fungus is biopsy stain is ?
A. Maner
B. Alzarian red
C. Pas
D. Polychrome methylen blue

Ans. PAS

3. Culture media, correct is ?
A. Nutrient broth is a basal media
B. When selective agent added to solid media, it becomes enrichment media

Ans. Nutrient broth is a basal media

4. Brucellosis is not spread by ?
A. Person to person contact
B. Inhalation of infected dust or aerosol
C. Contact with infected placenta
D. Ingestion of raw vegetables from infected farms

Ans. Person to person contact

Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

Reference: Park, 18th, Pg231

5. A young man presents with urethral discharge which has no organism but only pus cells. Diagnosis should be done on ?
A. Thayer Martin's Media
B. McCoy Cell Media

Ans. McCoy Cell Media

Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

6. A patient in ICU, on central venous line for the last one week, recieving ceftazidime and amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase negative. Following this, vancomycin was started but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is ?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Viridans streptococci
C. Enterococcus faecalis
D. Coagulase negative staphylococcus

Ans. Enterococcus faecalis

7. True regarding bacterioides fragilis, all except ?
A. B. fragilis is most frequent anaerobe isolated from clinical samples
B. B. fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to metronidazole
C. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B. fragilis is structurally and functionally different from the conventional endotoxin
D. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia

Ans. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia

Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

Reference: Harrison's, 16th, Pg-944,945

8. The bacteria which acts by cAMP activation is ?A. Vibrio cholerae

Ans. Vibrio cholerae

9. alpha hemolytic streptococci URTI ?
A. Bacitracin sensitivity
B. Optochin sensitivity
C. Catalase positivity
D. Bile solubility

Ans. Bacitracin sensitivity

10. All of the following are true regarding morphology of Chlamydia except ?
A. Elementary bodies are metabolically active
B. Biphasic life cycle
C. Once inside the cell it can evade host defense mechanisms
D. (something about Reticulate bodies)

Ans. Elementary bodies are metabollically active

Obstetrics
1. HIV transmission is most common during ?
A. Ist trimester
B. 2nd trimester
C. 3rd trimester
D. Delivery

Ans. Delivery

2. Which one of the following Maternal Heart diseases is associated with highest mortality during Pregnancy ?
A. Eisenmenger's complex
B. Mitral stenosis
C. Aortic stenosis
D. Coarctation of Aorta

Ans. Eisenmenger's complex

3. Hyperglycemia in late pregnancy is associated with ?
A. Macrosomia
B. Postmaturity
C. Intrauterine growth retardation
D. Congenital anomalies

Ans. Macrosomia

4. A patient presents with history of recurrent abortion, the investigation required for this patient is ?
A. PT
B. PTT
C. Anti russel viper snake venum
D. Fibrinogen levels

Ans. Anti russel viper snake venum

5. In HIV with Pregnancy the drug which is given to reduce the transmission from mother to fetus is ?
A. Nevirapine
B. Lamivudine
C. Stavudine

Ans. Nevirapine

6. In 1st Trimester aneuploidy is diagnosed by ?
A. Nuchal translucency
B. Crown Rump length

Ans. Nuchal translucency

Explanation:
"Increased fetal nuchal skin thickness(in the first trimester) >3mm by TVS is a strong marker for chromosomal anomalies(trisomy 21, 18, triploidy and Turners syndrome)"

Reference: D.C.Dutta, 6th, Pg-645
Contributor: Ponnu

7. Which does not cause obstruction to the after coming head ?
A. Extension of head
B. Contracted pelvis
C. Hydrocephalus
D. Placenta previa

Ans. Placenta previa

Contributor: Dr. Ponnu

8. Choline esterase in fetus most specific for ?
A. Open spina bifida
B. Gastroschisis
C. Exomphalos

Ans. Open Spina bifida

9. All are increased in Pregnancy except ?
A. Peripheral vascular resistance

Ans. A

10. Which of the following is not true regarding Congenital Torticollis ?
A. It undergoes spontaneous resolution
B. In 2/3rd cases, sternomastoid mass is palpable
C. Plagiocephaly
D. Always associated with breech extraction

Ans. Always associated with breech extraction

11. In pregnancy with hypothyroidism, which of the following is not seen ?
A. PIH
B. Polyhydramnios
C. Preterm delivery
D. Recurrent abortions

Ans. Preterm delivery

12. Most common congenital anomaly in infant of diabetic mother ?
A. Cardiovascular

Ans. Cardiovascular

Ophthalmology
1. Occulomotor nerve palsy does not result in ?
A. Ptosis
B. Miosis
C. Lateral deviation of the eye
D. Diplopia

Ans. Miosis

2. Orbital mass with proptosis, increases on bending forward, no thrill/bruit. MRI shows retro-orbital mass with enhancement with anechogenic(hypoechoecic)shadows and hyperechoeic shadows ?
A. Orbital AV malformation
B. Orbital Varix
C. Orbital Encephalocoele
D. Neurofibromatosis

Ans. Orbital varix

Contributor: Dr. Shashank Sood
Reference: Imaging spectrum of pediatric orbital pathology: A pictorial review ON INDIAN JOURNAL OF OPTHALMOLOGY. Kandpal Harsh, Vashisht Sushma, Sharma Raju, Seith Ashu

Explanation:
Primary orbital varix is a distensible low-flow venous malformation characterized by abnormal dilatation of the orbital veins. Since these veins are in continuity with the systemic circulation, they result in intermittent proptosis whenever the systemic venous pressure increases. Orbital varices can also form secondary to arteriovenous shunting (carotid cavernous fistula) or venous occlusive disease (dural venous sinus thrombosis).[5] Intralesional thrombosis, calcification or hemorrhage can occur. On USG varices are seen as tortuous dilated anechoic tubular channels with slow venous flow. A thrombosed varix may appear hyperechoic. CT and MRI show well-defined, tortuous enhancing channels which often have a club-like configuration with the tapering end towards the orbital apex [Figure - 16].[16] The demonstration of an increase in size during prone coronal scans, during valsalva maneuver or during jugular compression is pathognomonic of orbital varices [Figure - 17]. An association of orbital varices with intracranial venous malformations is reported in 10% cases and therefore investigation should include imaging for the intracranial veins.

3. All of the following are responsible for blindness in childhood except ?
A. Dacryoscystitis
B. Glaucoma
C. Malnutrition
D. Ophthalmia neonatorum

Ans. Dacryocystitis

Explanation:
In lower-income countries the primary causes of childhood blindness include:
Corneal scarring from measles, vitamin A deficiency, disease transmission through the birth canal (ophthalmia neonatorum) or the use of harmful, traditional home remedies Cataracts from rubella ,glaucoma and retinal dystrophies of genetic origin. Retinopathy of prematurity (ROP) caused by premature birth Amblyopia, which occurs when the brain fails to learn to see as the result of strabismus (squint).

Reference: http://www.orbis.org.in/bins/content_page.asp?cid=589-598-693-1563&lang=9

4. Hyaluronic acid is present in ?
A. Vitreous

Ans. Vitreous

5. All of the following are true about occulomotor nerve except ?
A. Causes constriction of pupil
B. Carries postganglionic parasympathetic fibres
C. Supplies inferior oblique muscle
D. Does not pass through inferior orbital fissure

Ans. ?

Orthopaedics
1. Bankart’s lesion is the stripping of glenoidal labrum from ?
A. Anterior part
B. Anteriosuperior part
C. Anterioinferior part
D. Posterosuperior part

Ans. Anteroinferior part

2. The most common site of pigmented villonodular synovitis is ?
A. Shoulder joint
B. Knee joint
C. Ankle joint
D. Metacarpophalyngeal joint

Ans. Knee joint

3. Epiphyseal tumor is ?
A. Osteoclastoma
B. Giant cell tumor

Ans. Osteoclastoma

4. Charcot's joint is not seen in ?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Leprosy
C. Syringomyelia
D. Arthrogryposis multiplex

Ans. Arthrygryposis multiplex

5. Supination not occuring at which joint ?
A. Superior radioulnar joint
B. Inferior radioulnar joint
C. Middle radioulnar joint
D. Radiocarpal joint

Ans. Radiocarpal joint

Contributor: Dr. Shashank Sood, Dr. Ros, Dr. Kajan

6. Rheumatoid arthritis is assocaited most importantly with ?
A. IgA rheumatoid factor
B. IgG rheumatoid factor
C. IgM rheumatoid factor
D. anti -CCP

Ans. anti-CCP

Reference: http://www.rheumatology.org/publications/hotline/1003anticcp.asp?aud=mem
Contributor: Dr. Shashank Sood

Otorhinolaryngology
1. A 6 year old with Upper Respiratory tract infection with blocked ears. Rx ?
A. do BL myringotomy
B. tonsillectomy
C. BL adenoidectomy with grommet
D. BL myringotomy with grommet

Ans. BL adenoidectomy with grommet

2. Treatment of Glue ear ?
A. Myringotomy with grommet insertion
B. Myringotomy
C. Medical treatment

Ans. Myringotomy with grommet insertion

3. A 30 year old female with history of progressive hearing loss, which became profound with pregnancy, the tympanogram will show which curve ?
A. A
B. B
C. As
D. Ad

Ans. As

Paediatrics
1. A 6 year old child with IQ of 50, can do which one of the following ?
A. Identify colours
B. Draw a triangle
C. Ride a bicycle
D. Read (?Write) sentences

Ans. C/A

Explanation:
A child can draw triangle at 5 yrs.

2. A child with VSD, polydactyly, bilateral small eyes, cleft palate and cleft palate is most likely to have ?
A. Trisomy 13
B. Trisomy 18
C. Trisomy 21

Ans. ?Trisomy13

3. A newborn is born with bullous lesions with periostitis. Which investigation should be done ?
A. VDRL for both mother and child
B. HBsAg test
C. Mantoux test

Ans. VDRL for both mother and child

4. Schwartz formula for estimation of GFR in children has a "k" constant which is independent of ?
A. Method of calculation of S. creatinine
B. Age
C. Renal function
D. Body mass

Ans. ?A

5. Hypothermia is associated with all in a neonate (or infant) except ?
A. Decreased peripheral resistance
B. Shivering
C. Cardiac arrhythmias
D. Imparied Renal Function

Ans. Shivering

6. All are associated with craniovertebral anomalies except ?
A. Ankylosing spondylitis

Ans. Ankylosing spondylitis

7. A newborn with CHF not responding to treatment, and having hydrocephalus with midline mass ?
A. Malformation of vein of galen

Ans. Malformation of vein of galen

8. A 3 years old child who does not interact, speech difficulty, plays alone, has problems in making relations, but normal milestones, is most likely to have ?
A. Autism
B. Mental retardation
C. Specific learning disability

Ans. Autism

9. Difference between adult growth and embryo growth ?
A. CDK inhibitors

Ans. CDK inhibitors

Pathology
1. In acute inflammation increase in permeability due to cytoskeleton rearrangement causes which response ?
A. immediate & transient
B. immediate & prolonged
C. delayed & transient
D. delayed & prolonged

Ans. delayed & prolonged

Reference: Robbins, 7th, Pg-52
Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

2. Acid phosphatase is a tumor marker for ?
A. Monocyte
B. B cell
C. T cell
D. Myelocyte

Ans. B cell

3. Which is associated with poor prognosis in AML ?
A. t(15:17)
B. inv 16
C. Monosomy 7
D. t(8:21)

Ans. Monosomy 7

4. Most common mutation in Beta thalassemia is ?
A. 3.7 deletion
B. intron 22 inversion
C. intron 1 inversion
D. 619 bp deletion

Ans. Intron 1 inversion ? / D ?

Explanation:
Check the link : http://www.google.co.in/search?hl=en&q=beta+thalassemia+%22most+common+mutation%22&meta=
. This reference was about the study in Greece. But in INDIA, 619bp deletion seems to be the answer,followed by INV-1. 619bp deletion was definitely an option. Reference: http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/entrez/query.fcgi?cmd=Retrieve&db=PubMed&list_uids=9599953&dopt=Abstract

Contributor: Dr. Kajan

5. High circulating levels of Lipoprotein A are associated with ?
A. Cirrhosis of liver
B. Atherosclerosis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Steatosis

Ans. Atherosclerosis

6. Persistently decreased complement levels seen in all except ?
A. Post streptococcal GN
B. Mesangiocapillary GN
C. Cryoglobilinemia
D. SLE

Ans. Post Streptococcal GN

7. Example of C-C chemokine is ?
A. IL-8
B. Eotaxin
C. Lymphotaxin

Ans. Eotaxin

8. One gene,multiple effect ?
A. Pleiotropy
B. Penetrance
C. Pseudodominance

Ans. Pleiotropy

9. Steroid resistant Nephrotic Syndrome is associated with which gene ?
A. NPSH 1
B. PAX
C. HOX II

Ans. NPSH 1

Contributor: Dr. Shashank Sood
Reference: Pediatric Steroid-Resistant Nephrotic Syndrome. Kevin D. McBryde, MD, David B. Kershaw, MD, and William E. Smoyer, MD.

10. Cyber Green Dye is used in ?
A. Real time PCR
B. HLPR
C. Immunofluorescent assay?
D. ELISA

Ans. Real time PCR
11. NK cells acts on virus infected cells ?
A. which express MHC -1
B. which doent express MHC -1
C. which express MHC - 2
D. which doesnot express MHC - 2

Ans. which doent express MHC -1

12. Autosomal dominant transmission is seen in ?
A. Berdet biedel syndrome
B. Best syndrome
C. Gyrate atrophy

Ans. ?

13. Umbilical bleeding in newborn is seen in ?
A. Von willebrandt's disease
B. Factor 10 deficiency
C. Glanzman's thrombasthenia
D. Bernard Soulier syndrome

Ans. Factor 10 deficiency

Explanation:
(also be known as Stuart-Prower Factor Deficiency)
Factor X deficiency was first discovered in a man with the surname Stuart from North Carolina. While his doctors had originally thought he might have factor VII deficiency, a woman with the surname Prower was determined to have the same clotting abnormality. Researchers realized that this was a new factor and called it the Stuart-Prower factor. It was later renamed Factor X deficiency.

The incidence of Factor X is estimated at 1 in 500,000 births. It is inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, which means it affects men and women equally.

The factor X protein activates the enzymes that help to form a clot. Several genetic variations of Factor X with varying degrees of severity have been described in the medical literature. People with mild forms of the deficiency, usually do not experience bleeding episodes, but do have bleeding after trauma or surgery. Patients with severe forms of the disease, commonly have joint bleeding, gastrointestinal bleeds, and hematomas. Spontaneous head bleeds, spinal cord bleeds and BLEEDING AT THE SITE OF UMBLICAL CORD have also been reported. Women with Factor X deficiency may have menorrhagia or be susceptible to first trimester miscarriage.

Diagnosis is made through a bleeding time test, prothrombin time (PT) test, and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) test. Diagnosis can be confirmed by a factor X assay, or a ruffle viper venom time assay.

Treatment

There are no factor X concentrates available and fresh-frozen plasma is normally used as treatment. Prothrombin Complex concentrates (PCCs) have been used in patients, but it is important to know that the amount of factor X in each product in not consistent. There has also been a reported risk of thromboembolic complications with PCC product usage.

Reference: http://www.hemophilia.org/NHFWeb/MainPgs/MainNHF.aspx?menuid=188&contentid=52&rptname=bleeding
Contributor: Dr. Shashank Sood

14. Anti-apoptotic gene is ?
A. BAX
B. BAD
C. BCL – XL

Ans. BCL - XL

15. Cell lines from 2 different zygotes ?
A. Chimerism
B. Mosaicism

Ans. Chimerism

16. Kidney lesion in Reflux nephropathy ?
A. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

Ans. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

17. Which of following pigments are involved in free radical injury ?A. Lipofuscin
B. Melanin
C. Prilirubin
D. Hematin

Ans. Lipofuscin

18. Which of the following indicates irreversible cell injury ?
A. Amorphous densities

Ans. Amorphous densities

Pharmacology
1. Loading dose of a drug depends upon ?
A. Route of administration
B. t ˝
C. Clearance
D. Volume of distribution

Ans. Volume of distribution

2. Which of the following drugs is not given if the creatinine clearance is < 10 mg% ?
A. Amphotericin
B. Vancomycin
C. Amikacin
D. Rifampicin

Ans. Amikacin

3. Which of the following drugs is not an atypical anti psychotic ?
A. Thioridazone
B. Clozapine
C. Risperidone
D. Olanzepine

Ans. Thioridazone

4. Which of the following is a Long acting beta 2 agnoist ?
A. Salmeterol
B. Pirbuterol
C. Orciprenaline
D. Fenoterol

Ans. Salmeterol

5. Which of the following Antitubercular drugs should be avoided in pregnancy ?
A. Streptomycin
B. Ethambutol
C. INH
D. Pyrazinamide
Ans. Streptomycin

6. Which of the following drugs causes transient loss of consciousness ?
A. INH
B. Pyrazinamide
C. Ethambutol
D. Ethionamide

Ans. ?Ethionamide

7. Which of the following is a prodrug ?
A. Enalapril

Ans. Enalapril

Explanation:
The active form of Enalapril is Enalaprilat.

8. All are class 1C drugs except ?
A. Encainide
B. Flecainide
C. Tocainide
D. Propafenone

Ans: Tocainide

Explanation:
Tocainide is class Ib.

9. 2nd generation H1 antagonist are all except ?
A. Fexofenadine
B. Acrivastine
C. Loratidine
D. Cyclizine

Ans. ?Acrivastine

10. Denosumab / Desunomab ?
A. Osteoporosis
B. SLE

Ans. Osteoporosis

11. Which of the following inhibits cell wall synthesis ?
A. tetracycline
B. ciprofloxacin
C. erythromycin
D. cefepime

Ans. Cefepime

12. NSAID with enterohepatic circulation ?
A. Aspirin
B. Phenylbutazone
C. Ibuprofen
D. Piroxicam

Ans. Piroxicam

Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

Reference: KDT, 5th, Pg-178

13. Benzodiazepine antagonist ?
A. Flumazenil

Ans. Flumazenil

14. Which should not be given in MRSA ?
A. Vancomycin
B. Cotrimoxazole
C. Cefactor
D. Ciprofloxalin

Ans. Cefaclor

15. Drug for long term maintenance of morphine withdrawal ?
A. Methadone

Ans. Methadone

16. Acetylation is mechanism for all except ?
A. INH
B. Dapsone
C. Procainamide
D. Metochlorpropamide

Ans. ?

17. 2nd generation H1 antagonist are all except ?
A. Fexofenadine
B. Acrivastine
C. Loratidine
D. Cyclizine

Ans. ?Acrivastine

18. Receptor structure for Adrenaline, Dopamine, Serotonin ?
A. One pass gated channel
B. Four pass gated channel
C. Seven transmembrane receptor structure
D. Ligand gated

Ans. Seven transmembrane receptor structure

Explanation:
Modeling of G-protein-coupled receptors: application to dopamine, adrenaline, serotonin, acetylcholine, and mammalian opsin receptors.Trumpp-Kallmeyer S, Hoflack J, Bruinvels A, Hibert M. Marion Merrell Dow Research Institute (MMDRI), Strasbourg, France.

Hydropathicity analysis of 39 G-protein-coupled receptors (GPCR) reveals seven hydrophobic stretches corresponding to membrane spanning alpha-helices. The alignment of the primary sequences shows a high degree of homology in the GPCR transmembrane regions. 3D models of 39 GPCRs were generated using the refined model of bacteriorhodopsin as a template. Five cationic neurotransmitter receptors (serotonergic 5-HT2, dopaminergic D2, muscarinic m2, adrenergic alpha 2 and beta 2 receptors) were taken as prototypes and studied in detail. The 3D models of the cationic neurotransmitter receptors, together with their primary structure comparison, indicate that the agonist binding site is located near the extracellular face of the receptor and involves residues of the membrane-spanning helices 3, 4, 5, 6, and 7. The binding site consists of a negatively-charged Asp located at the middle of transmembrane helix 3 and a hydrophobic pocket containing conserved aromatic residues on helices 4, 5, 6, and 7. To define the precise receptor-ligand interactions, the natural neurotransmitters were docked into the binding sites. Residues responsible for the affinity, selectivity, and eventually stereospecificity of dopamine, adrenaline, noradrenaline, serotonin, and acetylcholine for their receptors were identified. The ligands are involved in electrostatic interactions as well as hydrogen bonds and specific hydrophobic aromatic interactions. All the GPCRs possess invariant hinge residues, which might be responsible for a conformational change during agonist binding and therefore influence dissociation and association of G-proteins to the receptors. The role of hydrophobic interactions and hydrogen bonds in the conformational change of the receptors, modulating the coupling to the G-protein, is discussed with regard to these residues. The models are in agreement with published data obtained from mutagenesis and labeling studies and represent important working hypotheses to direct future mutagenesis studies. They also enable structure-activity relationship studies and more rational drug design. The 3D models of other G-protein-coupled receptors have been generated in a similar way.

PMID: 1328638 [PubMed - indexed for MEDLINE]

19. Naltrexone is given for ?
A. Reversal of the effects of overdose of opioids

Ans. Reversal of the effects of overdose of opioids

Physiology
1. The agranular Endoplasmic reticulum produces ?
A. Proteins
B. Lipids
C. Vitamins
D. Carbohydrates

Ans. Lipids

Explanation: Smooth Endoplasmic reticulum produces lipids which are passed to Golgi bodies, where as the Rough Endoplasmic reticulum produces proteins due to presence of Ribosomes.

2. The difference between pulmonary and systemic circulation ?
A. Hypoxia causes pulmonary vasoconstriction

Ans. A. Hypoxia causes pulmonary vasoconstriction

3. Turbulence increases in which of the following conditions ?
A. Reynolds no.< 2000
B. Velocity of fluid decreases
C. Increase in diameter
D. Density of fluid decreases

Ans. Increase in diameter

Reference: Ganong's, 22nd, Pg-583
Contributor: Dr. Adesh Srivastava

4. In high attitude, pulmonary oedema ?
A. Not exacerbated by exercise
B. Related to pulmonary oedema
C. Occurs only in unacclimatized person
D. Occurs due to pulmonary hypertension

Ans. Occurs due to pulmonary hypertension

5. Chymotrypsinogen is ?A. carboxypeptide
B. Zymogen

Ans. Zymogen

6. Mean arterial pressure forumla ?

7. True about golgi tendon reflex ?
A. Occurs when muscle is in contracted state
B. Occurs when muslce is in relaxed state
C. Innervated leg alpha motor neurons

Ans. ?

8. Slow increase in stimuli leading to decreased response, is known as ?
A. Adaptation
B. Accomodation
C. Electrotonus
D. Refractoriness

Ans. Accomodation

Reference: Ganong, 22nd, Pg-56
Contributor: Dr. Kajan

9. At arterial end of capillary, filtration is due to ?
A. Low oncotic pressure of capillary
B. High hydrostatic pressure of capillary
C. High hydrostatic pressure of interstitium
D. Low oncotic pressure of interstitium

Ans. High hydrostatic pressure of capillary

10. In high attitude, pulmonary oedema ?A. Is not exacerbated by exercise
B. Related to pulmonary hypertension
C. Occurs only in Unacclimatized person

Ans. ?

Psychiatry
1. Delusion is a disorder of ?
A. Thought
B. Insight
C. Cognition
D. Perception

Ans. Thought

2. Drug of choice for Obsessive compulsive disorder is ?
A. Haloperidol
B. Fluoxetine
C. Olanzepine
D. Thioridazine
(? Imipramine)

Ans. Fluoxetine

3. Sexual asphyxia is seen in ?
A. Masochism
B. Sadism
C. Voyeurism
D. ?

Ans. Masochism

Radiodiagnosis
1. Multiple myeloma bone scan shows ?
A. Hot spots
B. Cold spots
C. Diffuse Increased Uptake
D. Diffuse Decreased Uptake

Ans. Diffuse Decreased Uptake

2. A 35 year old female presents with lower limb weakness, spasticity, urinary hesitancy. MRI shows a midline intradural enhancing mass lesion. It is likely to be ?
A. Dermoid cyst
B. Meningoma
C. Intradural lipoma
D. Neuroepithelial cyst

Ans. ?Meningioma

Radiotherapy
1. Most chemoresistant sarcoma ?
A. Alveolar soft part sarcoma
B. Osteosarcoma
C. Synovial sarcoma
D. Malignant fibrous histiocytoma

Ans. ?A/D

Surgery
1. Best time for Orchiopexy is ?
A. Neonate
B. 1 - 2 years
C. 5 years
D. Puberty

Ans. 1 - 2 years

Explanation: Acc to Nelson its 9-15 months.

2. Adjuvant chemotherapy is of proven benefit in ?
A. cancer pancreas
B. cancer gall bladder
C. cancer colon
D. cancer oesophagus

Ans. cancer colon

3. Which metabolic abnormality is seen in Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis ?
A. Hypokalemic acidosis
B. Hypokalemic alkalosis
C. Hyperkalemic acidosis
D. Hyperkalemic alkalosis

Ans. Hypokalemic alkalosis

4. Which of the following does not indicate the severity of acute pancreatitits ?
A. Amylase level
B. Calcium level
C. Glucose level
D. Aspartate transaminase

Ans. Amylase level

5. Which is true about small bowel carcinoid ?
A. It is the most common tumor of small intestine
B. Most common site is duodenum
C. carcinoid syndrome is not associated with endocardial fibrosis
D. It is associated with development of lung cancers

Ans. It is associated with development of lung cancers

6. Breast cancer is least commonly associated with ?
A. BRCA I
B. BRCA – II
C. Le Fraumenni
D. Ataxia telangiectasia

Ans. Ataxia telangiectasia

7. Barrett's oesophagus is diagnosed by ?
A. Intestinal metaplasia
B. Columnar metaplasia
C. Squamous metaplasia

Ans. Intestinal metaplasia

8. Morgagni hernia comes out through ?
A. Right anterior diaphragm
B. Right posterior
C. Left anterior
D. Left posterior diaphragm

Ans. Right anterior diaphragm

9. Pelvic trauma + blood at urethra ?
A. Urethral injury
B. Uretheral injury
C. ??shock

Ans. Urethral injury

10. Screening of Familial Polyposis ?
A. Colonoscopy
B. Sigmoidoscopy (fibreoptic)
C. APC gene

Ans. C

11. In a Head Injury patient, most important prognostic factor is ?
A. Age
B. GCS
C. CT findings
D. Mode of injury

Ans. GCS

12. Branchial cyst, true is ?
A. Sinus is more commmon than cyst
B. Most commonly arises from 2nd Branchial arch
C. Excision is not always indicated

Ans. Most commonly arises from 2nd Branchial arch

13. Non malignant among these ?
A. Juvenile polyp
B. FAP
C. Puetz Jeghers polyp ?

Ans. Juvenile polyp

14. Which of the following is the commonest complication of ileostomy ?
A. Prolapse
B. Obstruction
C. Necrosis
D. Diarrhoea

Ans. Diarrhoea

15. A patient presenting with massive hemetemesis and 5 cms spleen ?
A. Portal hypertension
B. Gastric ulcer
C. Duodenal ulcer

Ans. Portal hypertension

16. Hypotension occuring during spinal cord injury is due to ?
A. Decrease in parasympathetic tone
B. Vasovagal attack
C. Loss of sympathetic tone

Ans. Loss of sympathetic tone

17. Which surgical procedure is used to stop / prevent bleeding above renal / mesentric artery ?
A. Caudal rotation of viscera
B. Cranial rotation of viscera
C. Right rotation of viscera
D. Left rotation of viscera

Ans. Left rotation of viscera

18. Head injury, signs of trauma, CT showing multiple hemorrhage and collapsed basal cisterns ?
A. Cerebral contusion
B. Cerebral laceration
C. Diffuse axonal injury
D. Multiple infarcts

Ans. Multiple infarcts

19. External haemorrhoids ?
A. Are below the dentate line and always painful
B. Should be always ligated
C. Are not same as anal skin tags

Ans. ?

20. Carcinoma tongue with 4 cm node, nodal stage ?
A. N0
B. N1
C. N2
D. N3

Ans. N2

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