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(Single Best Answer) Question 1: A 42 year old male with a past history of a manic episode presents with an illness of 1 month duration characterized by depressed mood, anhedonia and profound psychomotor retardation. The most appropriate management strategy is prescribing a combination of ?
A) Antipsychotics and antidepressants
B) Antidepressants and mood stabilizers
C) Antipsychotics and mood stabilizers
D) Antidepressants and benzodiazepines
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
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