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UPSC CMS 2007 Paper 2
UPSC CMS 2007 Exam Paper 2

Contributed by Ashish Kumar Sinha

Directions:

The following five (5) items consist of two statements, one labelled as the 'Assertion (A)' and the other as 'Reason (R)'. You are to examine these statements carefully and select the correct answers to these items using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

1. Assertion (A):
When ABO and Rh incompatibilities coexist, the baby is likely to have more severe haemolytic disease.
Reason (R)
Both ABO and Rh antibodies cause haemolysis of foetal red blood cells.
Answer: A

2. Assertion (A) :
In category III contact with a cat or dog, both antirabies immunoglobulin and vaccine are given immediately.
Reason (R) :
It takes at least 30 days to achieve a maximum level of immunity after vaccination.

3. Assertion (A) :
As long as baby is less than six months old, a woman can rely on exclusive breast-feeding alone for contraception unless she menstruates.
Reason (R) :
Exclusive breast-feeding alone is the only safe method of contraception during six months after delivery.
Answer: C

4. Assertion (A) :
One of the pathological conditions of acquired coagulopathy is abruptio placentae.
Reason (R) :
In abruptio placentae, thromboplastin is liberated from the retroplacental clot and damaged decidua.
Answer: A

5. Assertion (A) :
Hypocalcemia is more common among babies fed with cow's milk.
Reason (R) :
Cow's milk contains less concentration of calcium than that of human milk.
Answer: C

6. Guidelines for handling of / Biomedical Waste (Management and Handling) Rule, 1998 are laid down by
a. Ministry of Social-Welfare
b. Directorate of Medical Education and Research
c. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
d. Ministry of Environment and Forests (ANS)

7 Which one of the following is not a target disease under 'Vision 2020 : The Right to Sight'?
a.) Refractive error
b) Trachoma (ANS)
c) Corneal blindness
(d) Diabetic retinopathy

8. What is Berkesonian bias?
(a) Mis-classification bias (ANS)
b) Recall bias
c) Selection bias
(d) Non-response bias

9. The WHO definition for blindness is the inability of counting fingers in daylight at a minimum distance of
(a) 3 feet (b) 6 feet
(c) 3 metres (d) 6 metres (ANS)

10. Which one of the following is the category 1 of biomedical waste in India?
(a) Human anatomical waste (ANS)
(b) Microbiological and biotechnological waste
(c) Discarded medicines and cytotoxic drugs
(d) Animal waste

11. What is the average number of fleas of each species per rodent called?
(a) General Flea Index
b) Specific Flea Index (ANS)
c) Incidence of Flea Species
(d) Flea Infestation Rate

12. Which one of the following is not a viral haemorrhagic fever?
(a) Yellow fever
b) Rocky Mountain spotted fever (ANS)
c) Kyasanur Forest disease
(d) Dengue fever

13. What is the method of sampling in which the units are picked up at regular intervals from the universe?
a) Simple random sampling
b) Systematic random sampling (ANS)
c) Stratified random sampling
(d) Snow- ball sampling

14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists

List-I List-II
(State) (Retinol as vitamin)

A. Pregnancy 1. 600 mcg
B, Lactation 2, 950 mcg
C, Infant 3. 350 mcg
D, Children (1-6 4. 400 mcg
years age)

Code:
(a) A B C D (ANS)
1 3 2 4
b) A B C D
4 2 3 1

(c) A B C D
4 3 2 1
d) A B C D
1 2 3 4

15. Which one of the following will be affected by inter-observer variation?
a) Sensitivity (ANS)
b) Predictive value of the positive test
c) Specificity
(d) Reliability

16. Intrauterine foetal growth retardation may be associated with the following except
(a) maternal drug addiction
b) maternal smoking
c) foetal viral infection
(d) regular maternal aspirin intake (ANS)

17. Face to pubes delivery is possible with which cephalic presentation?
a) Mento-anterior
b) Mento-posterior
c) Occipito sacral (ANS)
(d) Brow presentation

18. With reference to meningococcal meningitis, which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Fatality in untreated cases is 60 percent (ANS)
(b) Disease spreads mainly by droplet infection
(c). Treatment of cases has no significant effect on epidemiological pattern of disease
(d) Mass chemoprophylaxis causes immediate drop in the incidence rate of cases

19. With reference to the epidemiology of Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS), which one of the following statements is not correct?
(a) Patient is most infectious during the first five days of illness
b) No evidence of mother to child transmission is observed
d) Children are rarely affected
(d). No evidence of child to child

20. Consider the following diseases:
1. Trench fever
2. Q fever
3. Weil's disease
4. Brill-Zinsser disease
Which of the above is / are caused by rickettsial infection?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1, 2 and 4 only(ANS)
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

21. Which one of the following is not a strategy under Roll Back Malaria?
(a) Strengthening of health system
b) Use of insecticide treated bed nets' (ANS)
(c) Anti-larval measures
(d) Development of new antimalaria drugs

22. An epidemiological hypothesis should specify the following except
a) population
b) Time response relationship
c) Geographical trends
d) Expected outcome (ANS)

23. Under DOTS chemotherapy, which one of the following is not a correct dose for an adult patient weighing up to 60 kg?
(a) Rifampicin 600 mg
(b) Isoniazid 600 mg(ANS)
(c) Pyrazinamide 1500 mg
(d) Ethambutol 1200 mg

24. What is the approximate penetrating ability of alpha particle radiation at tissue level?
a) 0. 05 mm (ANS)
b) 0. 10 mm
c) 1. 50 mm
d) 2. 00 mm

25. The criteria for 'at risk' infant include the following except
(a) Artificial feeding
(b) Grade 11 malnutrition(ANS)
(c) Working mother
(d) Birth order 4 and more

26. How is the Protein Energy Ratio (PER) in diet expressed as?

a) Energy in diet x 100
Protein in diet
(b) Energy from protein x 100 (ANS)
Total energy from diet
c) Total protein in diet x 100
Total energy in diet
(d) Total energy consumed x 100
Total protein consumed

27. In which one of the following conditions is sling operation done?
(a) Multiparous prolapse
(b) Nulliparous prolapse (ANS)
(c) Cystocoele.
(d) Rectocele

28. Match List-l with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists
List-I List - II
(Drug for induction (Daily dose)
of ovulation)
A. Clomiphene 1. 2.5 mg BDS
B. Metformin 2. 50 mg OD
C. Bromocriptine 3. 75 IU OD
D. Gonadotrphin 4. 500 mg TDS

a) A B C D
3 1 4 2

b) A B C D
3 4 1 2

c) A B C D
2 1 4 3

d) A B C D (ANS)
2 4 1 3


29. The following conditions are associated with molar pregnancy except
a) Pregnancy induced hyper tension
b) Thyrotoxicosis
(c) Gestational diabetes (ANS)
(d) Hyperemesis gravidarum

30. The current imaging technique of choice for the diagnosis of hydatidiform mole is
(a) Computed tomography
(b) ultrasonography (ANS)
(c) plain X-ray abdomen
(d) magnetic resonance imaging

31. Poor prognostic factors in the management of cancer cervix are the following except
(a) Young age
(b) Well-differentiated squamous cell carcinoma (ANS)
c) hydroureter
(d) adenocarcinoma

32. Which one of the following drugs is not used in endometriosis?
(a) Danazol
(b) Progestins
c) GnRH agonists
d) Misoprostol (ANS)

33. What is the most common ovarian tumour to undergo torsion?
a) Mucinous cystadenoma (ANS)
b) Serous, cystadenoma
c) Dermoid
d) Brenner tumour

34. Which one of the following is not a correct statement regarding the use of condom?
(a) Air should be squeezed out of the tip(ANS)
(b) It should be tested by inflating
c) It should be unrolled on erect penis
d) K-Y Jelly may be used for lubrication

35. The levonorgestrel IUD prevents the pregnancy primarily by
(a) Suppressing ovulation
(b) Making endometrium unreceptive (ANS)
c) Making cervical mucus thick
(d) 'Making inflammatory changes within endometrium

36. The 'highest incidence of ectopic pregnancy amongst contraceptive users is observed with
(a) Combined contraceptive pills
(b) Cu-T intrauterine contraceptive device
c) Progestasert intrauterine device
(d) Lippes loop intrauterine device (ANS)

37. Which one of the following is the most suitable situation for prescribing the progestin only pill?
(a) Perimenopausal patients
(b) Emergency contraception (ANS)
c) Lactational mother
(d) Diabetic mother

38. The drug of choice for the treatment of chlamydial infection is
(a) ampicillin
(b) third generation cephalosporins
c) metronidazole
(d) doxycycline (ANS)

39. Return to fertility is delayed after cessation of oral contraception by
(a) 2 weeks
(b) 3 weeks
c) 4 weeks
d) 6 weeks (ANS)

40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List – I Type-II
(type of vaccine) (Example)
A. Purified protein antigen 1. Acellular pertussis vaccine
B. Subunit 2. Hib vaccine
C. Conjugated capsular 3. Hepatitis A vaccine
Polysaccharide
D. Inactivated whole cell 4. Influenza vaccine
Code:
a) A B C D
1 4 2 3

b) A B C D
1 2 4 3

c) A B C D (ANS)
3 4 2 1

d) A B C D
3 2 4 1

41. Yearly data pertaining to deliveries and their outcome in a community is as follows:
Total number of births: 12600
Total number of stillbirths: 114
Total number of deaths –
(i) During first week after birth: 410
(ii) During second to fourth weeks
after birth : 280

Which one of the following formulae is used to calculate perinatal mortality rate?
(a) 114+410 x 1000 (ANS)
12600

b) 114 + 410 + 280 x 1000
12600

c) 114+410 x 1000
12600 -114

d) 114 + 410 + 280 x 1000
12600 -114

42. Which of the following are the first incisors to erupt in an infant?
a) Lower central (ANS)
(b) Lower lateral
c) Upper central
(d) Upper lateral

43. A 50-hour old full-term breast-fed newborn boy weighing 3100 g 'presents with clinically evident jaundice. Physical examination is otherwise normal, The total bilirubin is 11. 0 mg/ dl with a direct bilirubin of 0.4 mg/ dl. What would be the correct treatment?
a) Continue breast feeds review after 48 hours (ANS)
b) Stop breast feeds and review after 24 hours
c) Continue breast feeds and start blue-light phototherapy
d) Arrange for a double-volume exchange transfusion

44. An infant can sit with leaning forward on his hands. He bounces actively when made to' stand. He laughs aloud and becomes concerned when the mother moves away. What is his most likely age?
(a) 12 weeks
b) 16 weeks
c) 22 weeks (ANS)
d) 28 weeks

45. Birth weight of a baby doubles at the age of 5 to 6 months. At what age does his birth length double?
(a) One year
(b) Two years
c) Three years
(d) Four years (ANS)

46. Which one of the following is not a feature of combined immunodeficiency in children?
(a) Decreased total immunoglobulin level
(b) Neutropenia and eosinophilia (ANS)
c) Defective T-cell function
(d) Recurrent pulmonary infection

47. Which one of the following is not a pyridoxine dependent disorder?
a) Homocystinuria
(b) Methyl-malonic-acidemia (ANS)
c) Cystathioninuria
d) Xanthurenic aciduria

48. A four-year old child presents with mild fever, malaise, purpura, arthritis, abdominal pain and microscopic hematuria. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Thrombasthenia
b) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
c) Systemic lupus erythematosus
(d) Henoch-Schonlein purpura (ANS)

49. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List –I List-II
(Drug taken by a (Adverse effect on foetus)
Pregnant woman)
A. Sodium valproate 1. Supravalvular aortic stenosis
B. Vitamin D 2. Cleft lip and palate
C. Prednisolone 3. Deafness
D. Chloroquine 4. Spina bifida

Code:
a) A B C D
3 1 2 4

b) A B C D
3 2 1 4

c) A B C D (ANS)
4 1 2 3

d) A B C D
4 2 1 3


50. Straining and dribbling of urine in a male infant with recurrent urinary infection should lead to the suspicion of
a) vesico-ureteric reflux
b) posterior urethral valve (ANS)
c) pelvic ureteric junction obstruction
d) phimosis

51. Which one of the following is an autosomal dominant type of genetic disorder?
(a) Colour-blindness
b) Haemophilia
c) Phenylketonuria
d) Tuberous sclerosis (ANS)

52. With reference to bronchiolitis, consider the following statements:
1. It is more common among boy.
2. RSV immunoglobulin does not have any role in acute episode.
3. It is common around the age of six months.
4. Mortality is high in it.
Which of the statements above are given correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 3 and 4 only
c) 1, 2 and 3 only (ANS)
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

53. A two-year old boy presented "with episodes of becoming dusky. On examination, there was central cyanosis and clubbing. There was no pallor, oedema or respiratory distress. The heart was normal sized with a parasternal heave. A systolic thrill was palpable over the left middle sternal border. First heart sound was normal and only the aortic component was audible in the second heart sound. Liver was not enlarged. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
a) Congenital methemoglobinemia
b) Eisenmenger syndrome
c) Aortic stenosis
d) Tetralogy of Fallot (ANS)

54. What would be the minimum calorie requirement of a normal sedentary lactating mother of a eight month old baby?
a. 1900 kcal b. 2100 kcal
c. 2300 kcal(ANS) d. 2600 kcal

55. A woman with Body Mass Index of 20 is
a) Undernourished
b) Normal (ANS)
c) Overweight
d) Obese

56. Which one of the following is not a test for pasteurized milk?
(a) Methylene blue reduction test (ANS)
(b) Standard plate count
(c) Coliform count
(d) Phosphatase test

57. What is the percent of total energy ratio supplied by fish protein (PE% kcal)?
a) 20 (ANS)
b) 40
c) 60
d) 80

58. With a birthrate of 30 per thousand, in a subcentre of 5000 population, what would be the number of pregnant women.
a) 150 (ANS)
b) 155
c) 160
d) 165

59. Among the following, which one is the absolute contraindication .for combined oral contraceptive pills?
(a) Diabetes mellitus
b) Migraine
c) Previous history of thromboembolism (ANS)
(d) Heart disease

60. Which one of the following is an ideal example of recurrent disinfection?
(a) Boiling infected clothing for 30 minutes
(b) Pasteurization of milk (ANS)
c) Autoc1aving of infected gloves and syringes
(d) Disinfection of urine and sputum of patients with 5% cresol

61. Systematic observation and recording of activities of one or more individuals at random interval is done in
a) Systems analysis
b) Network analysis
(c) Work sampling (ANS)
d) Input-output analysis

62. Latent infection occurs in the following except:
a) Mumps
b) Herpes simplex
c) Brill-Zinsser disease (ANS)
d) Ancylostomiasis

63. Which one of the following intervention studies on coronary artery disease did not observe significant changes in mortality or risk factor since the control group was not properly chosen?
a. Stanford- three-community study
b. The north kerala project
c. Multiple risk factor intervention trial
d. Lipid research clinic study

64. Consider the following statements:
The features of cholera that differentiate it from food poisoning are
a. onset with purging
b. no nausea or retching
c. no tenesmus
d. leukocytosis

Which of the statements given above are correct?
a) 1, 2 and 3 only
b) 2, 3 and 4, only
c) 1 and 4 only (ANS)
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

65. What is the proportion of daily rate wages payable as periodic cash payment under Sickness Benefit of ESI Act?
a) 5 of the average monthly wages
12
b) 7 of the basic monthly wages (ANS)
12

c) 8 of the average daily wages
12

d) 10 of the average daily wages
12


66. A 32-year old woman with two live children was brought in emergency with the history of missed period for
15 days, spotting since 7 days and pain abdomen since 6 hours. Her pulse was 120-I min, pallor ++, and systolic BP 80 mm of Hg. There was fullness and tenderness on per abdomen examination. Copper- T thread was seen through external os on per speculum examination. On p/v examination, cervical movements were tender; uterus was anteverted, bulky and soft. There was fullness in pouch of Douglas. She is most likely suffering from
(a) pelvic inflammatory disease
(b) missed abortion with infection
c) ruptured ectopic pregnancy (ANS)
(d) Threatened abortion

67. Immediately after third stage, of labour in a case of full-term delivery, the fundus of the uterus is
(a) at the level of Xiphisternum
(b) at the level of umbilicus
(c) just below the level of umbilicus (ANS)
(d) just above the symphysis pubis

68. Oxytocin sensitivity test is used to assess the
(a) foetal well-being (ANS)
(b) period of gestation
(c) cervical ripening
(d) uterine response for induction

69. The Kleihauer test for detecting foetal erythrocytes is based on the fact that
(a) adult erythrocytes are larger than those of foetus
(b) HbA has higher oxygen affinity than HbF
c) HbF is more resistant acid elution than HbA (ANS)
(d) HbA takes up erythrosin stain less than HbF

70. What is the most common type of conjoined twin?
(a) Craniopagus (ANS)
(b) Thoracopagus
(c) Ischiopagus
(d) Pygopagus

71. \What is the treatment of choice of unruptured tubal pregnancy with serum beta hCG titre of 2000 IV/ml?
a) Single dose of methotrexate
(b) Variable doses of methotrexate
(c) Expectant management
(d) Laparoscopic salpingostomy (ANS)

72. Which one of the following causes the greatest risk of ectopic pregnancy?
(a) Pelvic inflammatory disease(ANS)
(b) Intrauterine contraceptive devices' use
(c) Previous ectopic pregnancy
(d) Previous medical termination of pregnancy

73. Consider the following statements:
A woman suffering from gestational diabetes is likely to develop
1. PIH
2. Macrosomia (foetal)
3. IUD
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3 (ANS)

74. Which one of the following is not a sign of early pregnancy?
(a) Goodell's sign
(b) Hegar's sign
(c) Cullen's sign (ANS)
(d) Palmer sign

75. Consider the following:
1. A reactive non-stress test
2. Absence of decelerations
3. A sinusoidal pattern
Which of the above findings in an antepartum cardiotocography indicate foetal well being?
a) 1 and 2 only (ANS)
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

76. A 20-year old primigravida is admitted with full-term pregnancy and labour pains. At 4: 00 AM she goes into active phase of labour with 4 cm cervical dilatation. Membranes rupture during p/v examination showing clear liquor. A repeat p/v examination after 4 hours of good uterine conditions reveals a cervical dilatation of 5 cm. What should be the next step in management?
(a) Reassess after 4 hours
(b) Immediate cesarean section
(c) Oxytocin drip
(d) Reassess for occipitoposterior position and cephalopelvic disproportion (ANS)

77. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:
List –I List-II
(Condition of delivery) (Procedure of delivery)
A. Hand prolapse 1. Lovset technique
B. Placental 2. Decapitation
C. Extended arms of 3. Brandt-Andrews procedure
breech at delivery
D. Deep transverse arrest 4. Vacuum extraction
Code:
a) A B C D (ANS)
2 3 1 4

b) A B C D
2 1 3 4

c) A B C D
4 3 1 2

d) A B C D
4 1 3 2

78. A primigravida with full-term pregnancy in labour for one day is brought to casualty after dai handling. On examination, she is dehydrated, slightly pale; pulse is
100 minutes, BP 120/80 mm Hg. Abdominal examination reveals a fundal height of 36 weeks, cephalic presentation, foetal heart absent, mild uterine contractions present. On p/v examination, cervix is fully dilated, head is at plus one station, caput with moulding present, pelvis is adequate.
Dirty, infected discharge present. What would be the best management option after initial work-up?
a) Cesarean section
b) Oxytocin drip (ANS)
c) Ventouse delivery
(d) Craniotomy and delivery

79. Which one of the following is not an epithelial tumour of the ovary?
a) Serous cystadenoma
b) Brenner tumour
(c) Clear cell tumour
(d) Endodermal sinus tumour (ANS)

80. An elderly multiparous woman with intrauterine foetal death was admitted with strong labour pains. The patient suddenly goes in shock with cyanosis respiratory disturbances and pulmonary oedema, the most likely clinical diagnosis is
(a) Rupture of uterus
(b) Congestive heart failure
(c) Amniotic fluid embolism (ANS)
(d) Concealed accidental haemorrhage

81. G2 P1 A0 presents with full-term pregnancy with transverse lie in the first stage of labour. On examination, cervix is 5 cm dilated, membranes are intact and foetal heart sounds are regular. What would be the appropriate management in this case?
(a) Wait for spontaneous evolution and expulsion
b) External cephalic version
c) Internal podalic version
d) Cesarean section (ANS)

82. A patient has just delivered a live baby and is referred to in a state of shock. On abdominal examination, uterus is not felt. On pelvic examination, a mass is seen protruding through the vagina. What is the most likely diagnosis?
(a) Cervical fibroid polyp
b) Third degree uterine prolapse
c) Acute inversion of uterus (ANS)
d) Rupture of uterus

83. Following delivery, uterus becomes a pelvic organ after
a) 2 weeks (ANS)
b) 4 weeks
c) 6 weeks
d) 8 weeks

84. Match list –I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Foetal tests) (Indications)
A. Non-stress test 1. Neural tube defect
B. Lecithin/ 2. Foetal well-being
sphingomyelin ratio
C. Estimation of alpha- 3. Downs syndrome
fetoprotein in liquor amni
D. Triple test 4. Lung maturity

Code:
a) A B C D
2 1 4 3

b) A B C D (ANS)
2 4 1 3

c) A B C D
3 1 4 2

d) A B C D
3 4 1 2

85. McDonald stitch is applied in the following condition except:
a. Incompetent os
b. Septate uterus
c. Placenta previa (ANS)
d. Bad obstetrical history



86. On Doppler, the most ominous sign indication foetal compromise is:
a. Increased pulsatility index in umbilical artery
b. Increased systolic-diastolic blood flow ratio
c. Increased cerebral artery flow
d. Absent diastolic flow (ANS)

87. Which one of the following medical disorders leads to delayed foetal lung maturity?
a. Heart disease
b. Diabetes (ANS)
c. Thalassemia minor
d. Epilepsy

88. What is the incidence of chromosomal abnormality per 1000 live births?
a. 1.6 b. 3.6
c. 5.6 (ANS) d. 7.6

89. Which one of the following is the method in the context of health education in which four to eight qualified persons discuss a given problem in front of a large audience?
a. Group discussion
b. Panel discussion (ANS)
c. Symposium
d. Brainstorming

90. As per WHO classification, what is the IQ score for moderate mental retardation?
a. 20 – 34
b. 35 – 49 (ANS)
c. 50 – 60
d. 60 – 65

91. Absorption of vitamin A can be enhanced by giving the child a diet rich in:
a. fat (ANS)
b. Protein
c. minerals
d. carbohydrates

92. If a new sputum smear positive patient of tuberculosis continues to be smear positive at the end of intensive phase of category I treatment under DOTS, further management of this patient would be to .
(a) start category treatment again
(b) treat him as failure and start category II treatment under DOTS
(c) continue the intensive phase of V treatment for one more month (ANS)
(d) start continuation phase under category I

93. What is the index for measuring operational efficiency of the Malaria Control Programme?
(a) Annual Parasite Index
b) Annual blood examination rate (ANS)
c) Slide Positive Rate
(d) Infant Parasite Rate

94. Exposure to 90 db and 4000 Hz noise results in
(a) auditory fatigue (ANS)
(b) temporary hearing loss
c) permanent hearing loss
(d) rupture of tympanic membrane

95. Under National Cancer Control Programme, oncology wings were sanctioned to
a) Regional Cancer Institutes
b) District Hospitals
c) Medical College Hospitals (ANS)
(d) Voluntary Agencies treating cancer patients


96. Which one of the following statements is not correct regarding National Leprosy Eradication Programme (NLEP)?
(a) Multibacillary leprosy treatment is recommended for one year
(b) Skin smear examination is done for classification into (ANS)
paucibacillary and multi bacillary
c) Special Action Project for Elimination of Leprosy is for rural areas
(d) Surveillance for two years for a treated case of paucibacillary leprosy to be carried out

97. Under Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) programme, which one of the following interventions is done only in selected districts?
a. Medical termination pregnancy at PHC level
(b) High quality of training at all levels (ANS)
c) Screening and treatment of RTI at district level
(d) Transport facility for referral of pregnant women during emergency

98. Which one of the following is not a special incidence rate?
(a) Attack rate
b) Secondary attack rate (ANS)
c) Hospital admission rate
(d) Standardized mortality rate

99. For the prevention of parent to child transmission of HIV, the NACO's recommendation is to give
a) niverapine 200 mg in active labour to mother
(b) niverapine 200 mg, four hours after rupture of membranes, to mother
(c) niverapine 200 mg in active labour to mother and niverapine 2 mg/kg weight to newborn 72 hours of delivery (ANS)
(d) Syrup niverapine 2 mg/kg body weight to newborn within 72 hours of birth

100. During Pomeroy's method of female sterilization, which portion of tube is ligated?
(a) Isthmus (ANS)
(b) Ampullary
c) Isthmo-ampullary
(d) Cornual

101. With reference to vasectomy, consider the following statements:
1. Non-scalpel vasectomy and conventional vasectomy have complication rates of 0.4% and 3% respectively.
2. When sperms are absent from two consecutive samples of semen, the vasectomy is considered complete for contraception.
Which of the statements given above is / are correct?
a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
c) Both I and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (ANS)

102. A 20-year old girl was raped around 13th day of her regular cycle. The best possible emergency contraception to be offered would be
(a) centchroman tablets
(b) Cu - T insertion
(c). levonorgestrel tablets (ANS)
(d) ethinylestradiol tablets

103 . Consider the following characteristics of vaginal discharge .
1. Green and thick
2. PH < 4.5.
3. Clue cells
4. Whiff test positive
Which of the above characteristics are present in bacterial vagueness ?
a. 1 and 3 only
b. 2 and 3 only
c. 1 and 4 only
D 3 and 4 only (ANS)

104 Laparoscopic approaches are usually performed.
A Immediately post – partum
B > 4-week post – partum
C > 6 week post – partum(ANS)
D any time

105 Ultrasound of 36 year old gravida reveals small grape like cystic structures without the evidence of complete hydatidiform mole id made further analysis is most likely to reveal that the
a genotype of the mole is 46XX and os completely paternal in origin . (ANS)
b genotype of the mole is triploid
c hCG levels are , markedly decreased
d serum levels of alpha-fetoproteinsare elevated

106. With reference to vagina, which one of the following statement is not correct?
A. it has mucus secreting glands
B it is supplied by uterine artery(ANS)
C it is lined by stratified squalors epithelium.
D its posterior wall is covered by peritinium

107 with reference to syndromes approach in reproductive tract infection consider the following statements :
1. single drug can be used foe treatment
2. the diagnosis of exact disease is not relevant
3. the management is disease specific .
4. The is an important part of family health awareness campaign
which of the statements given above are correct?
A 1 and 2 only
B 1 and 3 only
C 2 and 4 only(ANS)
D 1 2 3 and 4

108. The risk of mongolism in a mother at the age of 20 year is 1: 3000. what would be this ratio when she is 45 year old
A . 1: 6000
B . 1:3000
C . 1: 1040
D . 1: 50(ANS)

109 which one of the following is not a measure of dispersion ?
A . Mean(ANS)
B . Range
C. Mean deviation
D . Standard deviation

110. Match list –1` with list II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

List I List II
(IUD ) (expulsion rate per 100 women year )

A cut – T 200 1. 3.1
B. Progestasert 2.2.1
C. Nova –T 3.7.8
D. Multiload –375 4.5.8
Codes
A A B C D
2 1 4 3
b A B C D
2 4 1 3
C A B C D
3 4 1 2

D A B C D
3 1 4 2

111. Which of the following vitamin deficiencies causes corneal vascularization, poor growth and photophobia?
a. Riboflavin (ANS)
b. Pyridoxine
c. Niacin
d. Thiamine

112. Match List-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:
List-I List-II
(Congenital malformation (Congenital heart defect)
syndrome)
A. Foetal alcohol syndrome 1. Bicuspid aortic valve
B. Turner’s syndrome 2. Endocardial cushion
defect
C. Down’s syndrome 3. Pulmonary stenosis
D. Congenital rubella syndrome 4. Ventricular septal
defect
Code:
a) A B C D
3 2 1 4

b) A B C D (ANS)
3 1 2 4

c) A B C D
4 2 1 3

d) A B C D
4 1 2 3

113. Which one of the following is a distinguishing feature of Edwards’s syndrome?
a. Hypotonia
b. Hypotelorism
c. Holoprosencephaly
d. Rocker bottom feet (ANS)

114. With reference to classical phenylketonuria, consider the following statements:
1. Metal retardation is usually mild.
2. Vomiting is usually severe
3. hypotonia and reduced tendon reflexes are present
4. Convulsions may occur in 25% of cases.

Which of the above are the features of classical phenylketonuria?
a. 1, 2, and 3 only
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only (ANS)
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

115, Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I Liost-II
(Laboratory ( Disease conditions)
investigation)
A. Alkaline urine pH 1. Lactose intolerance
B. Elevated sweat chloride 2. Renal tubular acidosis
C. Reducing substance 3. Cystic fibrosis
in urine
D. Reducing substance 4. Galactosemia
in stool

Code
a) A B C D
2 4 3 1

b) A B C D (ANS)
2 3 4 1

c) A B C D
1 4 3 2

d) A B C D
1 3 4 2

116. Which one of the following is not a feature of proximal renal tubular acidosis?
a. Growth failure
b. Hypertonia
c. Acidic urine (ANS)
d. Polyuria

117. Consider the following diseases:
1. Addison’s disease
2. hypervitaminosis A
3. Obesity
4. Hyperparathyroidism

Which of the above are associated with pseudotumour cerebri?
a. 1, 2 and 3 only (ANS)
b. 1 and 3 only
c. 2 and 4 only
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4

118. Which one of the following activities cannot be performed by a 7-month old infant?
a. pivot
b. cruise (ANS)
c. transfer objects
d. enjoy mirror

119. The combined oral contraceptive pills decrease the risk of the following except:
a. Endometrial cancer
b. Ovarian cancer
c. Breast cancer (ANS)
d. Ectopic pregnancy

120. What is the gestational age at which the maternal hCG levels are maximum in a normal pregnancy?
a. 8 to 10 weeks (ANS)
b. 12 to 14 weeks
c. 16 to 18 weeks
d. after 20 weeks

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