Question 9: The investigation of choice in a 55 year old postmenopausal woman who has presented with postmenopausal bleeding is ?

Answer: B) Fractional currettage

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Question 10: A primigravida presents to casualty at 32 wks. gestation with acute pain abdomen for 2 hours, vaginal bleeding and decreased fetal movements. She should be managed by ?

Answer: B) Immediate induction of labour

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Question 11: The treatment for a case of virilising adrenal hyperplasia is ?

Answer: D) Cortisone

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Question 12: Lymphatic drainage of the cervix occurs by all of the following lymph nodes, except ?

Answer: B) Deep inguinal lymph nodes

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Question 13: Misoprostol is a ?

Answer: A) Prostaglandin E₁ analogue

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Question 14: Emergency contraception prevents pregnancy by all of the following mechanisms, except ?

Answer: D) Interrupting an early pregnancy

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Question 15: All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genital tract infection in users of progestin-releasing IUDs, except ?

Answer: B) Decreased ovulation

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Question 16: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestral releasing intra-uterine system ?

Answer: A) There is increased incidence of menorrhagia

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Question 17: Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding polycystic ovarian disease ?

Answer: D) Results in postdated pregnancy

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Question 18: Indicators of impending uterine rupture during labour include all of the following except ?

Answer: D) Passage of meconium

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Question 19: The following complications during pregnancy increase the risk of Post Partum Haemorrhage (PPH) except ?

Answer: A) Hypertension

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Question 20: The most common cause of tubal block in India is ?

Answer: C) Tuberculosis

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Question 21: Which one of the following congenital malformation of the fetus can be diagnosed in first trimester by ultrasound ?

Answer: A) Anencephaly

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Question 22: Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion during pregnancy ?

Answer: C) Dermoid cyst

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Question 23: Which vitamin deficiency is most commonly seen in a pregnant mother who is on phenytoin therapy for Epilepsy ?

Answer: D) Folic acid

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Question 24: The following hormone is raised in polycystic ovarian syndrome ?

Answer: C) Luteinising hormone

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Question 25: Which surgical procedure has the highest incidence of ureteric injury ?

Answer: C) Wertheim's hysterectomy

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Question 26: At what period does tuberculosis flare up most commonly in a pregnant patient ?

Answer: D) Puerperium

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Question 27: A VDRL reactive mother gave birth to an infant. All of the following would help in determining the risk of transmission to the infant except ?

Answer: B) TPHA test on the serum sample of the infant

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Question 28: A diabetic patient developed cellulitis due to Staphylococcus aureus, which was found to be Methicillin resistant on the antibiotic sensitivity testing. All of the following antibiotics will be appropriate except ?

Answer: B) Imipenem

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Question 29: A patient complained of chills and fever following a louse bite 2 weeks before. He had rashes all over the body and was delirious at the time of presentation to the hospital and subsequently went into coma. A provisional diagnosis of vasculitis due to Rickettsial infection was made. Which one of the following can be the causative agent ?

Answer: C) Rickettsia prowazekii

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Question 30: A 40 years old woman presented to the gynecologist with complaints of profuse vaginal discharge. There was no discharge from the cervical os on the speculum examination. The diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis was made based upon all of the following findings on microscopy except ?

Answer: C) Abundance of polymorphs

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Question 31: A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown. After 5 days he developed fever and had axillary lymphadenopathy. A smear was sent to the laboratory to perform a specific staining. Which one of the following staining method would help in the identification of the suspected pathogen ?

Answer: D) Wayson staining

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Question 32: Which one of the following statement is true regarding pathogenicity of Mycobacteria species ?

Answer: B) M. kansasii can cause a disease indistinguishable from tuberculosis

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Question 33: A veterinary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin. His blood culture in special laboratory media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which was oxidase positive. Which one of the following is the likely organism grown in culture ?

Answer: D) Brucella spp.

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Question 34: All of the following antibacterial agents acts by inhibiting cell wall synthesis, except ?

Answer: D) Nitrofurantoin

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Question 35: A young girl has consumed barium carbonate with suicidal intent. She complains of generalized muscle weakness. The most likely electrolyte abnormality is ?

Answer: C) Hypokalemia

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Question 36: The common side effect with Fluoxetine therapy is ?

Answer: B) Anxiety

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Question 37: A 15 year old female presents with primary amenorrhoea. Her breasts are Tanner 4 but she has no axillary or pubic hair. The most likely diagnosis is ?

Answer: C) Testicular feminization syndrome

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Question 38: All of the following may be seen in patients of cardiac tamponade except ?

Answer: A) Kussmaul's sign

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Question 39: All of the following may occur in Down's syndrome except ?

Answer: B) Undescended testis

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Question 40: All of the following are risk factors for atherosclerosis except ?

Answer: C) Decreased fibrinogen levels

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Question 41: Sudden cardiac death may occur in all of the following, except ?

Answer: D) Ventricular septal defect

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Question 42: Renal artery stenosis may occur in all of the following, except ?

Answer: D) Polyarteritis nodosa

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Question 43: All of the following may occur due to hyperkalemia, except ?

Answer: C) Prolonged QT interval

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Question 44: Which of the following is least likely to cause infective endocarditis ?

Answer: C) Salmonella typhi

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Question 45: A 28 years old woman having limited cutaneous scleroderma for the last 10 years complains of shortness of breath for last one month. Her pulmonary function tests (PFT) are as follows:

PFT Observed Predicted
FVC 2.63 2.82
FEV1 88 % 80 %
DLCO 5.26 16.3

What is the most likely diagnosis in this case ?

Answer: A) Interstitial lung disease

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Question 46: All of the following are the known causes of osteoporosis except ?

Answer: A) Fluorosis

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Question 47: Which one of the following clinical findings excludes the diagnosis of polymyositis ?

Answer: B) Extraocular muscle involvement

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Question 48: All of the following drugs are protease inhibitors except ?

Answer: C) Abacavir

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Question 49: A 58 years old woman, who had backache and recurrent chest infections for 6 months, develops sudden weakness of the legs and urinary retention. Her investigations show a hemoglobin of 7.3gm/dl, serum calcium12.6mg/dl, phosphate-2.5mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase-l00 u/l, serum albumin-3 gm/dl, globulin-7.1gm/dl, and urea-I78 mg/dl. What is the most likely diagnosis ?

Answer: C) Multiple myeloma

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Question 50: Anticentromere antibodies are most commonly associated with ?

Answer: C) CREST syndrome

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Question 51: Nevirapine is a ?

Answer: C) Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

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Question 52: Joint erosions are not a feature of ?

Answer: D) Systemic lupus erythematosus

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Question 53: Which of the following is not a feature of hypercalcemia ?

Answer: A) Diarrhoea

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Question 54: Which of the following parasitic infestation can lead to malabsorption syndrome ?

Answer: D) Giardiasis

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Question 55: The most common cause of gastric outlet obstruction in India is ?

Answer: D) Peptic ulcer disease

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Question 56: The presence of anti-Saccharomyces cerevisae antibody is a surrogate marker of one of the following ?

Answer: B) Crohn's disease

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Question 57: Which of the following tests is used to detect semen ?

Answer: C) Barberio's test

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Question 58: Scab or Crust of abrasion appears brown ?

Answer: B) Between 2 - 3 days

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Question 59: Medical qualifications awarded by institutions out side India and recognized by MCI are registred in ?

Answer: B) Second schedule of Indian Medical Council Act 1956

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Question 60: Spalding's sign occurs after ?

Answer: B) Death of foetus in uterus

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Question 61: Finger Print Bureau was first established in ?

Answer: C) India

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Question 62: A 45-year-old farmer has itchy erythematous papular lesions on face, neck, 'V' area of chest, dorsum of hands and forearms for 3 years. The lesions are more severe in summers and improve by 75% in winters. The most appropriate test to diagnose the condition would be ?

Answer: C) Patch test

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Question 63: A 24-year-old unmarried woman has multiple nodular, cystic, pustular and comadonic lesions on face, upper back and shoulders for 2 years. The drug of choice for her treatment would be ?

Answer: B) Isotretinoin

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Question 64: A patient had seven irregular hyperpigmented macules on the trunk and multiple small hyperpigmented macules in the axillae and groins since early childhood. There were no other skin lesions. Which is the most likely investigation to support the diagnosis ?

Answer: A) Slit lamp examination of eye

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Question 65: Pterygium of nail is characteristically seen in ?

Answer: A) Lichen planus

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Question 66: A 6-month-old infant had itchy erythematous papules and exudative lesions on the scalp, face, groins and axillae for one month. She also had vesicular lesions on the palms. The most likely diagnosis is ?

Answer: C) Scabies

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Question 67: Indian (economic) real GDP growth for the year 2003 is ?

Answer:

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Question 68: In which of the following year the Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India ?

Answer: A) 1994

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Question 69: The premium of the "Community based Universal Health Insurance Scheme" launched during 2003-04 ranges from ?

Answer: A) Rs. 1 per day poor and individual to Rs. 2 per day for a family of seven

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Question 70: According to the World Health report 2000, India's health expenditure is ?

Answer: A) 4.8 % of G.D.P.

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Question 71: Pre-treatment evaluation for Lithium therapy should include ?

Answer: B) Serum Creatinine

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Question 72: Study the following table carefully and answer the following question ?
Disease
Test result Present Absent
+ 40 225
- 10 225

What is the sensitivity of diagnostic test ?

Answer: C) 80

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Question 73: All the following are true in a randomized control trial (RCT) except ?

Answer: D) The drop-outs from the trial should be excluded from the analysis

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Question 74: All the statements are true about standardization except ?

Answer: B) The national population is always taken as the standard population

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Question 75: Physical quality of life index is measured by all except ?

Answer: D) Per capita income

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Question 76: In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease and the results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are given below.
Disease
Test result Present Absent
+ 180 400
- 20 400

Which of the following is the positive predictive value of diagnostic test in that population ?

Answer: B) 31

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Question 77: The extra energy allowances needed per day during pregnancy is ?

Answer: C) 300 Kcals

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Question 78: Which of the following is most strongly associated with coronary heart disease ?

Answer: A) Apolipoproteins

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Question 79: When a drug is evaluated for its usefullness in controlled conditions, it is termed as a trial signifying ?

Answer: B) Effectiveness

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Question 80: The purpose of double blinding in clinical trials is to ?

Answer: D) Avoid observer and subject bias

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Question 81: The major purpose of randomization in a clinical trial is to ?

Answer: C) Ensure the groups are comparable on base line characteristics

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Question 82: The structural proteins are involved in maintaining the shape of a cell or in the formation of matrices in the body. The shape of these proteins is ?

Answer: B) Fibrous

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Question 83: The comparison of the amino acid sequence of Cytochrome C from different species shows many variations. Most of these variations are found ?

Answer: A) Randomly

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Question 84: Which one of the following can be a homologous substitution for isoleucine in a protein sequence ?

Answer: C) Valine

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Question 85: Proteins are linear polymers of amino acids. They fold into compact structures. Sometimes, these folded structures associate to form homo- or hetero-dimers. Which one of the following refers to this associated form ?

Answer: D) Quaternary Structure

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Question 86: There are more than 300 variants of human hemoglobin gene. Among these only a few are fatal. Hence, the most important factor to be conserved in a protein for its function is the ?

Answer: A) Amino acid sequence

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Question 87: Which type of RNA has the highest percentage of modified base ?

Answer: B) tRNA

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Question 88: The sigma (Ã³) subunit of prokaryotic RNA Polymerase ?

Answer: C) Specifically recognizes the promoter site

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Question 89: All of the following enzymes are regulated by calcium or calmodulin, except ?

Answer: D) Hexokinase

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Question 90: The human plasma lipoprotein containing the highest percentage of triacylglycerol by weight is ?

Answer: B) Chylomicrons

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Question 91: The specialized mammalian tissue/organ in which fuel oxidation serves not to produce ATP but to generate heat is ?

Answer: C) Brown adipose tissue

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Question 92: All of the following amino acids are converted to succinyl -CoA, except ?

Answer: D) Histidine

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Question 93: The amino acid which serves as a carrier of ammonia from skeletal muscle to liver is ?

Answer: A) Alanine

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Question 94: The ligand-receptor complex dissociates in the endosome because ?

Answer: C) Of the acidic pH of the vesicle

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Question 95: The normal cellular counterparts of oncogenes are important for the following functions except ?

Answer: C) Promotion of DNA repair

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Question 96: Vitamin B₁₂ acts as coenzyme to which one of the following enzymes ?

Answer: B) Homocysteine methyl transferase

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Question 97: Base substitution mutations can have the following molecular consequences except ?

Answer: C) Reading frame changes downstream to the mutant site

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Question 98: Which one of the following is the complementary sequence of - 5' TTAAGCGTAC 3' ?

Answer: A) 5' GTACGCTTAA 3'

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Question 99: During phagocytosis, the metabolic process called respiratory burst involves the activation of ?

Answer: A) Oxidase

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Question 100: During replication of DNA, which one of the following enzymes polymerizes the Okazaki fragments ?

Answer: A) DNA Polymerase I

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Question 101: A common feature of all serine proteases is ?

Answer: D) Presence of Ser-His-Asp catalytic triad at the active site

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Question 102: A 5 year old patient is scheduled for tonsillectomy. On the day of surgery he had running nose, temperature 37.5Â° C and dry cough. Which of the following should be 'the most appropriate decision for surgery ?

Answer: D) Cancel surgery for 3 week and patient to be on antibiotic

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Question 103: A two month old infant has undergone a major surgical procedure. Regarding post operative pam relief which one of the following is recommended ?

Answer: B) Only paracetamol suppository is adequate

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Question 104: Blalock and Taussig shunt is done between ?

Answer: A) Aorta to Pulmonary artery

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Question 105: Which of the following intravenous induction agents is the most suitable for day care surgery ?

Answer: C) Propofol

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Question 106: Which of the following is not a sign of stellate ganglion block ?

Answer: B) Expohthalmus

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Question 107: Which of the following agents is used for the treatment of postoperative shivering ?

Answer: D) Pethidine

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Question 108: Which of the following agents is not used to provide induced hypotension during surgery ?

Answer: C) Mephenteramine

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Question 109: Which of the following is not an indication for endotracheal intubation ?

Answer: D) Pneumothorax

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Question 110: Which of the following anesthetic agents doesnâ??t trigger malignant hyperthermia ?

Answer: D) Thiopentone

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Question 111: Which of the following inhalational agents is the induction agent of choice in children ?

Answer: B) Sevoflurane

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Question 112: A 43 year old woman came with a large abscess in the middle of the right posterior triangle of the neck. The physician incised and drained the abscess. Five days later the patient noticed that she could not extend her right hand above her head to brush her hair. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of additional harm ?

Answer: C) Cut to spinal part of accessory nerve

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Question 113: Referred pain from all of the following conditions may be felt along the inner side of right thigh, except ?

Answer: C) Stone in pelvic Ureter

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Question 114: All of the following developmental events are dependent on the production of maternal or fetal glucocorticoid, except ?

Answer:

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Question 115: All of the following are the components of the white pulp of spleen, except ?

Answer: D) Vascular sinus

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Question 116: All of the following cell types contain the enzyme telomerase which protects the length of telomeres at the end of chromosomes, except ?

Answer: B) Somatic

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Question 117: Microsatellite sequence is ?

Answer: C) Short sequence (2 - 5) repeat DNA

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Question 118: Euchromatin is the region of DNA that is relatively ?

Answer: D) Partially condensed

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Question 119: The long and short arms of chromosomes are designated respectively as ?

Answer: C) q and p arms

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Question 120: Prenatal diagnosis at 16 weeks of pregnancy can be performed using all of the following, except ?

Answer: C) Chorionic villi

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Question 121: Polar bodies are formed during ?

Answer: C) Oogenesis

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Question 122: Mitochondrial DNA is ?

Answer: A) Closed circular

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Question 123: In a family, the father has widely spaced eyes, increased facial hair and deafness. One of the three children has deafness with similar facial features. The mother is normal. Which one of the following is most likely pattern of inheritance in this case ?

Answer:

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Question 124: A child with a small head, minor anomalies of the face including a thin upper lip, growth delay, and developmental disability can have all of the following, except ?

Answer: B) A teratogenic syndrome

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Question 125: The following methods can be used to detect the point mutation in the beta (Ã¢)-globin gene that causes sickle cell anemia, except ?

Answer: D) Northern blot analysis

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Question 126: An affected male infant born to normal parents could be an example of all of the following, except ?

Answer: A) An Autosomal dominant disorder

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Question 127: Which of the following is not a common feature of Anorexia Nervosa ?

Answer: A) Binge eating

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Question 128: Middle meningeal artery is direct branch of ?

Answer: B) Internal maxillary artery

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Question 129: In adults, the spinal cord normally ends at ?

Answer: A) Lower border of L1

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Question 130: Afferent component of corneal reflex is mediated by ?

Answer: C) Trigeminal nerve

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Question 131: Brain abscess in cyanotic heart disease is commonly located in ?

Answer: D) Parietal lobe

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Question 132: The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is ?

Answer: C) Aneurysm

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Question 133: The requirement of potassium in a child is ?

Answer: A) 1 - 2 mEq/kg

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Question 134: Which of the following tumors is not commonly known to increase in pregnancy ?

Answer: D) Neurofibroma

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Question 135: Which of the following is the most common type of Glial tumors ?

Answer: A) Astrocytomas

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Question 136: The normal range of serum osmolality (in mOsm/L) is ?

Answer: A) 270 - 285

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Question 137: The most preferred approach for pituitary surgery at the present time is ?

Answer: C) Transphenoidal

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Question 138: Mycotic abscesses are due to ?

Answer: B) Fungal infection

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Question 139: Total score in Glasgow Coma Scale of a conscious person is ?

Answer: C) 15

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Question 140: Dacron vascular graft is ?

Answer: B) Textile synthetic

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Question 141: Neointimal hyperplasia causes vascular graft failure as a result of hypertrophy of ?

Answer: A) Endothelial cells

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Question 142: Allen's test is useful in evaluating ?

Answer: C) Integrity of palmar arch

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Question 143: Which of the following is not a component of Glasgow Coma Scale ?

Answer: C) Pupil size

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Question 144: Which of the following drugs is not a part of the 'Triple Therapy' immunosuppression for post renal transplant patients ?

Answer: C) FK 506

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Question 145: Which of the following is not a preferred site for planning vascular access for maintenance haemodialysis ?

Answer: D) Sapheno-femoral fistula

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Question 146: The following statements about thyroglossal cyst are true, except ?

Answer: C) Incision and Drainage is the treatment of choice

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Question 147: Apart from Escherichia coli, the other most common organism implicated in acute suppurative bacterial peritonitis is ?

Answer: A) Bacteriodes

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Question 148: Biliary stricture developing after Laparoscopic cholecystectomy usually occurs at which part of the common bile duct ?

Answer: B) Middle

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Question 149: A patient of post-cholecystectomy biliary stricture has undergone an ERCP three days ago. Following this she has developed acute cholangitis. The most likely organism is ?

Answer: A) Escherichia coli

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Question 150: Which of the following colonic polyps is not pre-malignant ?

Answer: A) Juvenile polyps

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Question 151: Which one of the following statements is incorrect regarding stones in the common bile duct ?

Answer: D) When removed by exploration of the common bile duct the T -tube can be removed after 3 days

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Question 152: Laryngocele arises as a herniation of laryngeal mucosa through the following membrane ?

Answer: A) Thyrohyoid

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Question 153: The most common cause of acquired arteriovenous fistula is ?

Answer: D) Penetrating trauma

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Question 154: The procedure of choice for the evaluation of an aneurysm is ?

Answer: D) Arteriography

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Question 155: Mycotic aneurysm is an aneurysm infected because of ?

Answer: D) Both intravascular & extravascular infection

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Question 156: The most common malignancy found in Marjolin's ulcer is ?

Answer: B) Squamous cell carcinoma

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Question 157: A vitreous aspirate from a case of metastatic endophthalmitis on culture yields Gram positive round to oval cells, 12-14 Ã¬ in size. The aspirate on Gram staining shows the presence of pseudohyphae. Which of the following is the most likely aetiological agent ?

Answer: C) Candida

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Question 158: The most common cause of ocular morbidity in India is ?

Answer: C) Refractive error

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Question 159: According to the World Health Organization. the definition of blindness is ?

Answer: D) Visual acuity < 3/60 in the better eye with best correction

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Question 160: Under the National Programme for Control of Blindness, who is supposed to conduct the vision screening of school students ?

Answer: A) School teachers

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Question 161: As per the 1986-89 NPCB survey, what was the prevalence of blindness in India (at visual acuity < 6/60 in better eye) ?

Answer: B) 1.49 %

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Question 162: SAFE Strategy is recommended for the control of ?

Answer: A) Trachoma

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Question 163: A case of Non-Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus (NIDDM) with a history of diabetes for one year should have an ophthalmic examination ?

Answer: A) As early as feasible

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Question 164: In which of the following uveitic conditions is it contraindicated to put in an intraocular lens after cataract surgery ?

Answer: B) Juvenile rheumatoid arthritis

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Question 165: Which of the following medications is contraindicated in patients with allergy to sulphonamides ?

Answer: C) Brinzolamide

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Question 166: Which of the following is the drug of choice for treatment of corneal ulcers caused by filamentous fungi ?

Answer: B) Natamycin

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Question 167: Which of the following anti glaucoma medications can cause drowsiness ?

Answer: C) Brimonidine

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Question 168: Typically bilateral inferior lens subluxation of the lens is seen in ?

Answer: C) Hyperlysinaemia

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Question 169: Which drug can cause macular toxicity when given intravitreally ?

Answer: A) Gentamycin

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Question 170: The retina receives its blood supply from all except ?

Answer: A) Posterior ciliary artery

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Question 171: The most common cause of vitreous haemorrhage in adults is ?

Answer: D) Diabetes

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Question 172: The average distance of the fovea from the temporal margin of the optic disc is ?

Answer: B) 2 disc diameter

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Question 173: The magnification obtained with a direct ophthalmoscope is ?

Answer: C) 15 times

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Question 174: The treatment of choice for squamous cell anal cancer is ?

Answer: C) Chemoradiotherapy

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Question 175: Which of the following is not a major criteria for diagnosis of multiple myeloma ?

Answer: A) Lytic bone lesions

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Question 176: Which one of the following has the maximum ionization potential ?

Answer: C) Helium ion

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Question 177: Which one of the following imaging techniques gives maximum radiation exposure to the patient ?

Answer: C) CT Scan

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Question 178: Which of the following is used in the treatment of differentiated thyroid cancer ?

Answer: A) ¹³¹I

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Question 179: The percentage of pulmonary emboli, that proceed to infarction, is approximately ?

Answer: B) 5 - 15 %

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Question 180: The ideal timing of radiotherapy for Wilms Tumour after surgery is ?

Answer: A) Within 10 days

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Question 181: Phosphorous-32 emits ?

Answer: A) Beta particles

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Question 182: All of the following radioisotopes are used as systemic radionucleide, except ?

Answer: D) Samarium-153

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Question 183: All of the following modalities can be used for in-situ ablation of liver secondaries, except ?

Answer: A) Ultrasonic waves

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Question 184: A patient with leukemia on chemotherapy develops acute right lower abdominal pain associated with anemia, thrombocytopenia and leukopenia. Which of the following is the clinical diagnosis ?

Answer: D) Neutropenic colitis

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Question 185: In which of the following age group Myelodysplastic Syndromes (MDS) are most common ?

Answer: D) > 50

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Question 186: In a suspected case of ovarian cancer, imaging work-up is required for all of the following information, except ?

Answer: B) Characterization of the lesion

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Question 187: The most radiosensitive tumour among the following is ?

Answer: C) Dysgerminoma

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Question 188: With regard to the malignant behaviour of leiomysarcoma, the most important criterion is ?

Answer: D) The number of mitoses per high power field

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Question 189: When carcinoma of stomach develops secondfarily to pernicious anemia, it is usually situated in the ?

Answer: B) Pylorus

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Question 190: A malignant tumour of childhood, that metastasizes to bones most often, is ?

Answer: B) Neuroblastoma

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Question 191: In which of the following types of breast carcinoma, would you consider biopsy of opposite breast ?

Answer: C) Lobular carcinoma

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Question 192: Mixed tumours of the salivary glands are ?

Answer: C) Most common in parotid gland

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Question 193: All of them use non-ionizing radiation, except ?

Answer: D) Radiography

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Question 194: The most sensitive imaging modality to detect early renal tubeuculosis is ?

Answer: A) Intravenous urography

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Question 195: Which of the following causes rib-notching on the chest radiograph ?

Answer: D) Coarctation of Aorta

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Question 196: The most common location of hyperternsive intracranial haemorrhage is ?

Answer: B) Basal ganglia

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Question 197: The MR imaging in multiple sclerosis will show lesions in ?

Answer: A) White matter

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Question 198: The most important sign of significance of renal artery stenosis on an angiogram is ?

Answer: A) A percentage diameter stenosis > 70 %

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Question 199: The most accurate investigation for assessing ventricular function is ?

Answer: B) Echocardigraphy

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Question 200: Which is the objective sign of identifying pulmonary plethora in a chest radiograph ?

Answer: C) Diameter of the descending right pulmonary artery > 16 mm

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Question 201: Expansile lytic osseous metastases are characteristic of primary malignancy of ?

Answer: A) Kidney

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Question 202: In which of the following conditions left atrium is not enlarged ?

Answer: B) Atrial septal defect

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Question 203: The most common retrobulbar orbital mass in adults is ?

Answer: C) Cavernous haemangioma

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Question 204: Which of the following statements is true regarding testicular tumours ?

Answer: B) Bilateral in upto 10 % cases

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Question 205: The following features are true for Tetralogy of Fallot, except ?

Answer: C) Atrial septal defect

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Question 206: All of the following are associated with better prognosis in schizophrenia, except ?

Answer: C) Negative symptoms

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Question 207: Rivastigmine and Donepezil are drugs used predominantly in the management of ?

Answer: D) Dementia

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Question 208: Intense nihilism, somatization and agitation in old age are the hallmark symptoms of ?

Answer: A) Involutional melancholia

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Question 209: Loosening of associations is an example of ?

Answer: A) Formal thought disorder

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Question 210: Mutism and akinesis in a person, who appears awake and even alert, is best described as ?

Answer: B) Oneroid state

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Question 211: The most common side effect reported with treatment with haloperidol is ?

Answer: B) Akathisia

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Question 212: Bright light treatment has been found to be most effective in treatment of ?

Answer: B) Seasonal Affective Disorder

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Question 213: Pavlov's experiment is an example of ?

Answer: B) Classical conditioning

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Question 214: All are side effects of Clozapine except ?

Answer: D) Extrapyramidal side effects

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Question 215: All of the following are part of the treatment of Lithium toxicity, except ?

Answer: D) Using an antagonist

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Question 216: The hyperkinetic features of the Huntingtons's disease are due to the loss of ?

Answer: D) Intrastriatal GABA-ergic and cholinergic system

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Question 217: The first reflex response to appear as spinal shock wears off in humans is ?

Answer: B) Withdrawal reflex

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Question 218: The maintenance of posture in a normal adult human being depends upon ?

Answer: A) Integrity of reflex arc

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Question 219: Which of the following secretions has a very high pH ?

Answer: B) Pancreatic juice

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Question 220: Testosterone production is mainly contributed by ?

Answer: A) Leydig cells

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Question 221: Which of the following organs is not involved in calcium homeostasis ?

Answer: D) Lungs

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Question 222: The prime driving force for counter current multiplier system is ?

Answer: B) Reabsorption of Na⁺ in thick ascending limb

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Question 223: The tubuloglomerular feedback is mediated by ?

Answer: C) Sensing NaCl concentration in the macula densa

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Question 224: The cell bodies of orexinergic neurons are present in ?

Answer: C) Lateral hypothalamic area

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Question 225: In human being, the least useful physiological response to low environmental temperature is ?

Answer: D) Piloerection

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Question 226: A pilot in Sukhoi aircraft is experiencing negative G. Which of the following physiological events will manifest in such situation ?

Answer: D) The cerebral arterial pressure rises

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Question 227: The parvocellular pathway, from the lateral geniculate nucleus to the visual cortex, carries signals for the detection of ?

Answer: B) Color vision, shape and fine details

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Question 228: The blobs of the visual cortex are associated with ?

Answer: C) Color processing

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Question 229: Most afferent fibers from the lateral geniculate nucleus terminate in the primary visual cortex in ?

Answer: C) Layer 4

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Question 230: Ovulation is primarily caused by preovulatory surge of ?

Answer: B) Luteinizing hormone

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Question 231: Which of the following is the muscle relaxant of choice in renal failure ?

Answer: C) Atracurium

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Question 232: Which one of the following agents sensitises the myocardium to catecholamines ?

Answer: C) Halothane

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Question 233: The following are the benzodiazepines of choice in elderly and those with liver disease, except ?

Answer: D) Diazepam

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Question 234: Which one of the following local anaesthetics belongs to the ester group ?

Answer: A) Procaine

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Question 235: Which enzyme is inhibited by Aminophylline ?

Answer: C) Phosphodiesterase

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Question 236: Which one of the following muscle relaxant has the maximum duration of action ?

Answer: D) Doxacurium

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Question 237: All of the following are major complications of massive transfusion, except ?

Answer: A) Hypokalemia

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Question 238: All of the following are therapeutic uses of Penicillin G, except ?

Answer: B) Rickettsial infection

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Question 239: Which one of the following agents has been associated with hemorrhagic stroke ?

Answer: A) Phenylpropanolamine

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Question 240: Concomitant administration of clonazepam with which of the following antiepileptic drug can precipitate absence status ?

Answer: A) Sodium valproate

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Question 241: Which of the following drugs is not used topically for treatment of open angle glaucoma ?

Answer: C) Acetazolamide

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Question 242: Which one of the following drugs causes constipation ?

Answer: D) Captopril

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Question 243: Which one of the following drugs does not interfere with folic acid metabolism ?

Answer: B) Gabapentin

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Question 244: All of the following mechanisms of action of oral contraceptive pill are true, except ?

Answer: D) Interference with placental functioning

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Question 245: One of the following statements regarding mycophenolate mofetil is incorrect ?

Answer: C) It also inhibits calcineurin

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Question 246: The following statements regarding benzodiazepines are true except ?

Answer: A) Binds to both GABA_A and GABA_B receptors

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Question 247: Which one of the following drugs is an antipseudomonal penicillin ?

Answer: C) Piperacillin

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Question 248: Which one of the following antibacterials should not be used with d-tubocurarine ?

Answer: B) Streptomycin

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Question 249: Which of the following statements is not true about etomidate ?

Answer: B) It precipitates coronary insufficiency

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Question 250: Ethosuximide is used in the treatment of ?

Answer: B) Absence seizure

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Question 251: Which of the following is the most common presenting symptom of non-cirrhotic portal hypertension ?

Answer: C) Upper gastrointestinal bleeding

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Question 252: Which one of the following is the most significant risk factor for development of gastric carcinoma ?

Answer: C) Intestinal metaplasia

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Question 253: In which of the following conditions Parakeratosis most frequently occurs ?

Answer: A) Actinic keratoses

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Question 254: Which one of the following stromal dystrophy is a recessive condition ?

Answer: C) Macular dystrophy

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