Question 1: Which of the following produces the least damage to blood elements ?
A) Disc oxygenator
B) Membrane oxygenator
C) Bubble oxygenator
D) Screen oxygenator
Answer:
C
Question 2: Which one of the following is not a prion associated disease ?
A) Scrapie
B) Kuru
C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease
D) Alzheimer’s disease
Answer:
D
Question 3: Which one of the following is correct regarding Eaton-Lambert syndrome?
A) It commonly affects the ocular muscles
B) Neostigmine is the drug of choice for this syndrome
C) Repeated electrical stimulation enhances muscle power in it
D) It is commonly associated with adenocarcinoma of lung
Answer:
C
Question 4: A 60 years old man with rheumatic mitral stenosis with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64 beats per min. The most likely drug being administered was ?
A) Verapamil
B) Digoxin
C) Carvedilol
D) Propranolol
Answer:
B
Question 5: In a patient with Listeria meningitis who is allergic to penicillin, the antimicrobial of choice is ?
A) Vancomycin
B) Gentamicin
C) Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole
D) Ceftriaxone
Answer:
C
Question 6: Laboratory evaluation for the differential diagnosis of chronic myeloproliferative disorders includes all of the following, except ?
A) Chromosomal evaluation
B) Bone marrow aspiration
C) Flow-cytometric analysis
D) Determination of red blood cell mass
Answer:
C
Question 7: A 50 year old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus is found to have 24 hr urinary albumin of 250 mg. Which of the following drugs may be used to retard progression of renal disease ?
A) Hydrochlorthiazide
B) Enalapril
C) Amiloride
D) Aspirin
Answer:
B
Question 8: Which of the following is the most common extrarenal involvement in autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease ?
A) Mitral valve prolapse
B) Hepatic cysts
C) Splenic cysts
D) Colonic diverticulosis
Answer:
B
Question 9: All of the following can cause hypercalcemia, except ?
A) Prolonged immobilization
B) Tumor lysis syndrome
C) Sarcoidosis
D) Multiple myeloma
Answer:
B
Question 10: A patient of acute leukemia is admitted with febrile neutropenia. On day four of being treated with broad-spectrum antibiotics, his fever increases. X-ray chest shows bilateral fluffy infiltrates. Which of the following should be the most appropriate next step in the management ?
A) Add antiviral therapy
B) Add antifungal therapy
C) Add cotrimoxazole
D) Continue chemotherapy
Answer:
C
Question 11: A patient is admitted with 3rd episode of deep venous thrombosis. There is no history of any associated medical illness. All of the following investigations are required for establishing the diagnosis, except ?
A) Protein C deficiency
B) Antithrombin III deficiency
C) Antibodies to factor VIII
D) Antibodies to cardiolipin
Answer:
C
Question 12: A patient presents with melaena, normal renal function, hypertension and mononeuritis multipex. The most probable diagnosis is ?
A) Classical polyarteritis nodosa
B) Microscopic polyangitis
C) Henoch-Schonlein purpura
D) Buerger’s disease
Answer:
A
Question 13: A 27 year old man is noted to have blood pressure of 170/100 mmHg. He has prominent aortic ejection click and murmurs heard over the ribs on both sides anteriorly and over the back posteriorly. In addition, the pulses in the lower extremities are feeble and he complains of mild claudication with exertion. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Atrial septal defect
B) Aortic stenosis
C) Coarctation of the aorta
D) Cardiomyopathy
Answer:
C
Question 14: Which of the following is generally not seen in idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) ?
A) More common in females
B) Petechiae, ecchymosis and bleeding
C) Palpable splenomegaly
D) Increased megakaryocytes in bone marrow
Answer:
C
Question 15: Which of the following statements is incorrect with regard to hepatorenal syndrome in a patient with cirrhosis ?
A) The creatinine clearance is > 40 ml/min
B) The urinary sodium is less than 10 mmol/L
C) The urine osmolality is lower than the plasma osmolality
D) There is poor response to volume expansion
Answer:
Question 16: A 62 year old diabetic female patient presented with history of progressive right-sided weakness of one-month duration. The patient was also having speech difficulty. Fundus examination showed papilledema. Two months ago, she also had a fall in her bathroom and struck her head against a wall. The most likely clinical diagnosis is ?
A) Alzheimer's disease
B) Left parietal glioma
C) Left MCA territory stroke
D) Left chronic Subdural haematoma
Answer:
D
Question 17: Ramkali bai, a 35 year old female presented with one year history of menstrual irregularity and galactorrhea. She also had off-and-on headache. Her examination revealed bitemporal superior quadrantopia. Her fundus examination showed primary optic atrophy. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case ?
A) Craniopharyngioma
B) Pituitary macroadenoma
C) Ophthalmic ICA aneursym
D) Chiasmal glioma
Answer:
A
Question 18: A young female patient with long history of sinusitis presented with frequent fever along with personality changes and headache of recent origin. The fundus examination revealed papilledema. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Frontal lobe abscess
B) Meningitis
C) Encephalitis
D) Frontal bone osteomyelitis
Answer:
A
Question 19: A fourteen year old boy is admitted with history of fever, icterus, conjunctival suffusion and haematuria for twenty days. Which of the following serological test can be of diagnostic utility ?
A) Widal test
A) Widal test
B) Microscopic Agglutination Test
C) Paul Bunnel test
D) Weil felix reaction
Answer:
B
Question 20: All of the following statement are true regarding central nervous system infections, except ?
A) Measles virus is the causative agent for subacute sclerosing pan encephalitis (SSPE)
B) Cytomegalo virus causes bilateral temporal lobe hemorrhagic infarction
C) Prions infections causes spongiform encephalopathy
D) JV virus is the causative agent for progressive multifocal leucoencephalopathy
Answer:
Question 21: HIV associated nephropathy is a type of ?
A) Membranous glomerulonephritis
B) Immunotactoid glomerulopathy
C) Collapsing glomerulopathy
D) Fibrillary glomerulopathy
Answer:
C
Question 22: All of the following disease cause massive splenomegaly except ?
A) Malaria
B) Kala-azar
C) Lymphoblastic leukaemia
D) Idiopathic myelofibrosis
Answer:
Question 23: A 48 year old woman was admitted with a history of weakness for two months.
On examination, cervical lymph nodes were found enlarged and spleen was palpable
2 cm below the costal margin. Her hemoglobin was 10.5 g/dl, platelet count 237 x
109/L and total leukocyte count 40 X 109/L, which included
80% mature lymphoid cells with coarse clumped chromatin. Bone marrow revealed a
nodular lymphoid infiltrate. The peripheral blood lymphoid cells were positive
for CD19,CD5, CD20 and CD23 and were negative for CD79B and FMC -7. Which one of
the following statements in not true about this disease ?
A) Trisomy 12 correlates an aggressive clinical course
B) Abnormalities of 13q14 are associated with long term survival
C) Cases with 11q22-23 deletions have excessive lymphadenopathy
D) t(11;14) translocation is present in most of the cases
Answer:
Question 24: All of the following are used for managing status epilepticus except ?
A) Phenytoin
B) Diazepam
C) Thiopentone sodium
D) Carbamazepine
Answer:
D
Question 25: A patient following head injury was admitted in intensive care ward with signs of raised intracranial pressure. He was put on ventilator and started on intravenous fluids and diuretics. Twenty four hours later his urine output was 3.5 liters, serum sodium 156 mEq/l and serum osmolarity of 316 mOsm/kg. The most likely diagnosis based on these parameters is ?