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HOME > MCQS > AIIMS MD/MS EE > 2004 NOVEMBER PATHOLOGY

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AIIMS 2004 NOVEMBER PATHOLOGY MCQS

 
Question 1: The following are true about Tumor Suppressor Gene p53 except ?
A) It regulates certain genes involved in cell cycle regulation
B) Its increased levels can induce apoptosis
C) Its activity in the cells decreases following UV irradiation and stimulates cell cycle
D) Mutations of the p53 gene are the most common genetic alteration seen in human cancer
 
Answer: B
 
Question 2: Increased susceptibility to breast cancer is likely to associated with a mutation in the following gene ?
A) p53
B) BRCA-1
C) Retinoblastoma (Rb)
D) H-Ras
 
Answer: B
 
Question 3: All of the following can cause of megakaryocytic thrombocytopenia, except ?
A) Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
B) Systemic lupus erythematosus
C) Aplastic anemia
D) Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
 
Answer: C
 
Question 4: The following test may be abnormal in disseminated intravascular coagulation, except ?
A) Prothrombin time
B) Activated partial thromboplastin time
C) D-dimer levels
D) Clot solubility
 
Answer: B
 
Question 5: Which one of the following gram positive organisms is the most cause of urinary tract infection (UTI) among sexually active women ?
A) Staphylococcus epidermidis
B) Staphylococcus aureus
C) Staphylococcus saprophyticus
D) Enterococcus
 
Answer:
 
Question 6: A 30 year old male patient presents with urethritis. All of the following can be the causative agent except ?
A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
B) Chlamydia trachomatis
C) Trichomonas vaginalis
D) Haemophilus ducreyi
 
Answer: C
 
Question 7: The type of Allergic reaction seen in Allergic fungal sinusitis is ?
A) Type 1 and Type 2
B) Type 2 and Type 3
C) Type 1 and Type 3
D) Type 4 and Type 1
 
Answer:
 
Question 8: Calcification of soft tissues without any disturbance of calcium metabolism is called ?
A) Ionotrophic calcification
B) Monotrophic calcification
C) Dystrophic calcification
D) Calcium induced calcification
 
Answer: C
 
Question 9: The most common causative organism for lobar pneumonia is ?
A) Staphylococcus aureus
B) Streptococcus pyogenes
C) Streptococcus pneumoniae
D) Haemophilus influenzae
 
Answer:
 
Question 10: Which one of the following is not a criterion for making a diagnosis of chronic myeloid leukemia in accelerated phase ?
A) Blasts 10-19% of WBC's in peripheral blood
B) Basophils 10-19% of WBC's in peripheral blood
C) Increasing spleen size unresponsive to therapy
D) Persistent thrombocytosis (>1000 x 109 /L) unresponsive to therapy
 
Answer: B
 
Question 11: CD 19 positive, CD 22 positive, CD 103 positive monoclonal B-cells with bright kappa positivity were found to comprise 60% of the peripheral blood lymphoid cells on flow cytometric analysis in a 55 year old man with massive splenomegaly and a total leucocyte count of 3.3 x 109/L. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) splenic lymphoma with villous lymphocytes
B) mantle cell lymphoma C) B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
C) B-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
D) hairy cell leukemia
 
Answer:
 
Question 12: A four year old boy was admitted with a history of abdominal pain and fever for two months, maculopapular rash for ten days, and dry cough, dyspnea and wheezing for three days. On examination, liver and spleen were enlarged 4 cm and 3 cm respectively below the costal margins. His hemoglobin was 10.0 g/dl, platelet count 37 x 109/L and total leukocyte count 70 x 109/L, which included 80% eosinophils. Bone marrow examination revealed a cellular marrow comprising 45% blasts and 34% Eosinophils and eosinophilic precursors. The blasts stained negative for myeloperoxidase and non-specific esterase and were positive for CD19, CD10, CD22 and CD20. Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis ?
A) Biphenotypic acute leukemia (lymphoid and eosinophil lineage)
B) Acute eosinophilic leukemia
C) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia with hypereosinophilic syndrome
D) Acute myeloid leukemia with eosinophilia
 
Answer:
 
Question 13: All of the following are examples of tumor markers, except ?
A) Alpha-HCG (a-HCG)
B) Alpha-Fetoprotein
C) Thyroglobulin
D) β2 – microglobulin
 
Answer: A
 
Question 14: Which of the following combination of cytogenetic abnormality and associated leukemia / lymphoma is incorrect ?
A) t(8:14) Burkitts lymphoma
B) t(15:17) AML-M3
C) t(9:22) CML
D) t(9:20) ALL
 
Answer: D
 
Question 15: Endoscopic biopsy from a case of H. pylori related duodenal ulcer is most likely to reveal ?
A) Antral predominant gastritis
B) Multifocal atrophic gastritis
C) Acute erosive gastritis
D) Gastric atrophy
 
Answer: A
 
Question 16: Early gastric cancer generally indicates ?
A) Gastric adenocarcinoma detected early
B) Gastric adenocarcinoma confined to the mucosa
C) Gastric adenocarcinoma confined to the mucosa and submucosa
D) Gastric adenocarcinoma less than 1 cm in size
 
Answer: C
 
Question 17: A 7 year old boy with left renal mass had bone pain and was detected to have bone metastatic deposits. The most likely renal tumor is ?
A) Favourable histology Wilms tumor
B) Renal cell carcinoma
C) Clear cell sarcoma
D) Rhabdoid tumor
 
Answer:

 
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