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Home >> Exams >> MD MS EE >> AIIMS MD MS EE >> AIIMS MD MS EE 2007 November >> ForumTopic: recalled questions aiims nov 07

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mpge

Total Posts: 35



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 05:05 am

lets recall all questions in aiims nov 07 with explanation(small) on this authentic website Smile
mpge

Total Posts: 35



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 05:06 am

telephona is beating of both ears
draparna

Total Posts: 6



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 05:38 am

multiple renal cysts radially placed in a neonate with h/o a female sibling expired due to the same... diagnosis???
draparna

Total Posts: 6



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 05:50 am

1. name of grading system for bone tumors?? choices were manchester, tnm n 2 more... never heard!
2. exploration of a parahiatal adenoca. esophagus...
ans. abdo>chest>neck
3. egg on side appearance of heart
ans. uncorrected TGA
4. pulmonary thromboembolism - investigation
ans. ddimer (i feel so coz confirmatory test wasnt mentioned in the ques. that goes against PA which is an invasive test)
5. relation of lt renal vein with aorta
ans. anterior n inf. to sup. mesentric a.
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 04:06 pm

goniometer is used for wat?
drgill07

Total Posts: 11



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 04:31 pm

1.tandem bullet fire s how many number of bullets ?
ans -two
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 06:07 pm

which cation is used in PCR? Ca or Mg...?
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 06:16 pm

few q were on stains...
1.acridine is used for staining?
DNA, RNA, Oor both

2.PAS is not used for staining?
i cant remember the options but one was BM,

3.WHICH STAIN IS NOT USED FOR STAINING GLYCOGEN?
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 06:19 pm

in retrocecal appendix inflamation hyperextension of hip will cause pain. this is known as poas sign
mpge

Total Posts: 35



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 06:56 pm

acridine mainly for rna/dna

pcr needs mg++

goiniometer for urethrovesical reflex

pulmunary embolism -----multidector anigiography(its noninvasive)
drgill07

Total Posts: 11



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 08:12 pm

prions contain ?
a.dna
b.rna
c.bpth dna and rna
d none
drgill07

Total Posts: 11



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 08:12 pm

prions contain ?
a.dna
b.rna
c.both dna and rna
d none
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 08:33 pm

prions r protien
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 08:37 pm

which is the most superior structure at hilum of root lung?
1.pulmonary vein
2.pulmanary artery
3.bronchi
4.
ans..????

days following appendicectomy operation a lady suffered nose injury due to fall on a table.there was swelling of nose.m/n plan?
1.give antibiotic
2.surgical I/D
3. observation
ans 2

which vaccine does not given to a child suffering from a convulsion?
1.measles
2.dpt
3.bcg
4.opv
dpt
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 08:45 pm

polio 2-3 questions were there
acute spastic paralysis
no need to report cases of < 5 yrs wid paralysis

good clinical practices.... in all except
a. preclinical phase
b. phase 1
c. phase 2
d. phase 4

18 month old comin for vaccination previously imunized wid one dose of bcg n opv?

something related to cx incomp.......

complication of ICV... its rupture ut

which doesnot include disperstion?
was the ans dispertion...........

plz do correct me if wrong for any thing
drgill07

Total Posts: 11



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 09:09 pm

all are modes of dispersion except?
a.mode
b.std deviation.
c.variance
d.range
ans...?mode?
eagle

Total Posts: 15



Posted: Tue Nov 06, 2007 10:59 pm

Que.1 Tryptans act through 1)5HT1a 2)5HT1b 3)5HT1c 4)5HTf
Que.2 Therapeutic monitoring is required for all except 1) Phenytoin2) Cyclosporine3) Tacrolimus4) Metformin
Que.3 Kanavel’s sign present in 1) Tenosynovitis2) Carpal tunnel syndrome3) Trigger finger4) Duputreyans contractures
Que.4 Acridine dye used to stain1) DNA-RNA 2) Protein 3) Lipid 4) Carbohydrate
Que.5 Stains for lipid are all except 1) Oil red O 2) Congo red3) Sudan III4) Sudan black
Que.6 True about protease inhibitors are A/E 1) MDR-1 gene2) Metabolized by hepatic enzymes 3) Drug interaction4) Saquinavir most potent action on CYP3A4
Que.7 Shoulder pain in laparoscopy is due to1) Subphrenic abscess2) CO2 narcosis 3) Positioning of patient4) Compression of lungs
Que.8 PAS positive a/e 1) Glycogen 2) lipid 3) fungal Cell wall 4) basement membrane
Que.9 for Vibrio cholera, medium used1) Thayer martin 2) TCBS3) Scirrow 4) ..
que.10 Primary impact injury is most common in1) head2) chest3) abdomen 4) leg
Que.11 Telefona 1) Pulling of hair2) Beating on soles3) Beating on ears 4) …
Que.12 In tandem gun, number of [bleep] fired 1) 12) 23) 3 4) 4
Que.13 Vitreous humor is sent in1) Phenol 2) HCl 3) Acetone 4) Xylene 5) alcohol
Que.14 Fixing of cervical smear is done by1) Ethanol2) Acetone3) Xylene 4) ..
Que.15 Blood spills on floor are cleaned by1) Sodium hypochlorite 2) Iodine3) 4)
Que.16 true about dietery allowance are all except 1) RDA 2) adequate intake 3) dietary intakeaccording to the food composition4) food intake according to the upper limit of RDA
Que.17which of the following person is present in a sub centre 1) multi purpose worker2) doctor3)lab technician 4) health educator
Que.18 Ionic exchange in the corneal endothelium depends upon the metabolic rate. In which of the following Ionic exchange is blocked 1) Anaerobic glycolysis inhibition2) Aerobic glycolysis3)Phosphodiesterease inhibitors
Que.19 Gall bladder epithelium is 1) simple columnar2) simple columnar with brush border 3)squamous 4) cuboidal with stercocilia
Que.20 3 year old girl posted for tonsillectomy, found to have midline cystic swelling which is painless below the hyoid. What should be done next 1) Surgery 2) X-ray chest 3) antibiotics 4) Aspiration
Que.21 After laparoscopic appendicectomy, patient had fall from bed on her nose, after whish she had swelling in the nose and slight difficulty in breathing. What should be done next
1) Antibiotics for 7 to 14 days and discharge 2) Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days 3) Surgical drainage 4) Observation in hospital for 2wks
Que.22 Goniometry is measurement of 1) urethrovesical angle 2) number of gonococci 3) length of genital hiatus 4)
Que.23 Metabolic alkalosis is seen in 1) excess mineralocorticoid 2) decreased mineralocorticoids
3) increased base excretion 4) decreased H+ ion secretion
Que.24 Following drugs act on GABA-A except 1) thiopentone 2) midazolam 3) zopiclone 4) promethazine
que.25 Nephelometry depends on following law 1) Lambert Beer law 2) Scattering of light from particles 3) refraction of light 4) decread intensity of light
Que.26 Thiopentone true are A/E 1) induction agent of choice in shock 2) cerebroprotective
3) contraindicated in porphyria 4) mixed with ….
Que.27 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge, weight loss. Diagnosis is
1) OCCULT Cancer 2) Anorexia nervosa ( may be they are asking abt prolactinoma)
3) Hypothyroidism 4)

Que.28 True about vitiligo are all except 1) Genetic predisposition 2) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis 3) PUVA-B is used for treatment 4) Topical steroids give good results.
Que.29 Down’s syndrome, true is A/E 1) PAPP- A increased 2) Increased b-HCG
3) Absence of nasal bone 4)
Que.30 In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary thromboembolism, best investigation would be 1) D-dimer 2) CT angiography 3) Catheter angiography 4)
Que.31 70 year old hypertensive with unconsiousness with normal ECG cause is 1) pulmonary hromboembolism 2) vasovagal attack 3) temporal lobe epilepsi 4)
Que.32 Thrombo prophylaxis are all except 1) aspirin 3) heparin 4) AT 3
Que.33 pt of myocardial ischemia 1)thrombolytic therapy 2)pantoprapazole 3)asprin 4)
Que.34 in a pt with retro caecal appendicitis following maneuvers will produce pain 1) flection at hip
2) extension at hip 3) medial rotation 4) lateral rotation
Que.35 cryoprecipitate not seen 1)factor 8 2) factor 9 3) vWF 4) fibrinogen
Que.36 in a caase due to asphyxia last to be opened during dissections 1) neck 2) thorax 3) bdomen 4) brain
Que.37 what is seen in normal person on lying down 1) increase in venous return 2) 3) 4)
Que.38 exercise causes which of the following 1) increase in muscle blood flow occurs after ½ min
2) increase in body tempeture 3) 4)
Que.39 most common type of seizure in neonates 1) tonic 2) clonic 3) subtle 4) myoclonic
Que.40 block in the 2 nd part of axilary nearve what will searve as collateral 1) subscapular and oster circumflex humeral 2) circumflex scapular and ant circumflex scapular 3) 4)
Que.44 post ductal compression of aorta collateral to serve are 1) intercostal and inferior epigastric ) 3) 4)
Que.45 a child presents with non blanching rash over the extensor aspect of arm with swelling over knee urine analysis show proteinurea 1 + and rbc 3+ on kidney biopsy which finding will be seen
1) fusion of podocytes 2) ATN 3) depositions of Ig A 4)thickening of membrane
Que.46 collapsing glomarulopathy follwing is seen 1) proliferation of parietal cells 2) tuft necrosis 3)
Que.47 Peristalsis of ureter depends on 1) sympathetic flow 2) parasympathetic flow 3) both 4) acemaker in smooth muscle of ureter Que.48 In MVP, valve degeneration is
1) hyaline degeneration 2) myxomatous degeneration 3) .. .. 4) .. ..
Que.49 In rheumatic carditis with MR, following finding will be seen 1) Increased residual volume
2) Increased PEFR 3) decreased TLC 4) Increased ventilatory capacity
Que.50 FRACTURE 5th metatarsal following forceful inversion is due to forceful contraction of following muscle. 1) peroneus longus 2) peroneus brevius 3) peroneus tertius 4) extensor digitorum brevis
Que.51 In emergrncy tracheostomy following structures are damaged except 1) Isthmus of thyroid 2) inferior thyroid vein 3) inferior thyroid artery 4) thyoidea ima
Que.52 Whats the uppermost structure in left lung hilus
1) pulmonary artery 2) pulmo. vein 3) bronchial artery 4) broncus
Que.53 In systemic capillary blood flow, all are seen except
1) Increased protein content 2) decreased pH 3) shift of oxygen dissociation curve to left
4) increased hematocrit.
Que.54 Cardiac O2 consumption is Directly proportional to 1) mean arterial pressure
2) external cardiac work done 3) heart rate 4)
Que.55 micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except 1) active hepatitis B 2) Alcoholic cirrhosis
3) Haemachromatosis 4) Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis
Que.56 Phenytoin, all are true except 1) Induces enzymes 2) Zero order kinetics at low dose
3) Half life increases with increasing dose 4) Highly protein bound
Que.57 which of the following drug binds most avidly to 5HT3 ) granisetron 2) ondansetron 3) dolasetron 4)
Que.58 marker of acute hepatitis B 1) HBV DNA 2) IgG HBc 3) HBs Ag 4) HBe Ag
Que.59 A 30 year old man, presents with 6 month history of facial pain and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again had symptoms of mucopurilent discharge in middle meatus. Next best step 1) Non contrast CT nose 2) X ray maxillary sinus 3) MRI 4) Inferior meatus
60 Tongue muscle develop from 1) mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch 2) Occipital SOMITES
3) CERVICAL SOMITES 4) ..
q61…3 year old child with h/o fever, dry cough with lower lobe consolidation, improved with antibiotics for 7 days. Follow up after 8 weeks revealed increased consolidation. Next step in investigation 1) bronchoscopy 2) nasopharyngeal culture 3) CT 4) Que.62 meiosis in permatogenesis occurs in which step 1) Iry spermatogonia to secondary spermatogonia
2) SPERMATID TO ROUND SPERMATID 3) 4) Que. 63 surfactant action 1) Breaks structure of water 2) lubricates CO2 3) make capilariay surface hydrophilic 4)
Que.64 increase in maternal ser AFP is seen in 1) downs 2) molar pregnancy 3) overestimation of estation age 4) renal agenasis
Que.65 which Is not essential feature of TOF 1) pulmonary valvular stenosis 2) infundibular stenosis 3) overriding of aorta 4)
Que.66 linkage studies uses the principal of 1) DNa polymorfism 2) PEDIGREE SHOWING WHO IS FFECTED AND WHO IS NOT 4)
Que.67 methode of hb estimation except 1) drabkins 2) sahl’s 3) spectrophotometry 4) wintrobes
Que.68 in PCR following is used 1) Ca++ 2) Mg++ 3) Li+ 4) Na+
Que.69 pulmonary hypertension is a\W all except 1) hyperventelation 2) obesity 3) phenfluramin
4) high altitude
Que.70 clomiphen citrate is a\W all except 1) polycystic overy 2) foetal anamoly 3) multiple regnency 4) ovarian cancer
Que.71 diagnosis of asherman syndrome is done by all except 1) Endometrial culture 2) hysteroscopy 3) Hysterosalpingography 4) water …
Que.72 Pancytpenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except 1) PNH 2) Megaloblastic anaemia
3) myelodysplasia 4) congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia
Que.73 Uterine relaxant with Least side effects 1) Ritodrine 2) Nifedipine 3) Progesteron 4) Magnesium sulphate
Que.74 Following is associated with max risk of invasive cervical cancer 1) HPV 16 with dysplasia 2) LOW GRADE INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA 3) High grade INRAEPITHELIAL NEOPLASIA 4) HIV associated Que.75 Internal podalic version for transverse lie complication is
1) uterine rupture 2) cervical laceration3) Uterine inertia 4) vaginal laceration
Que.76 Drugs causing Hyperglycemia 1) corticosteroids 2) b blockers 3) 4)
Que.77 Not seen in VHL 1) Pheochromocytoma 2) Pancreatic tumour 3) Endolymphatic sac tumour )
Que. 78 left renal vein crosses aorta at the level of 1) Posterior at level of superior mesenteric artery 2) anterior above the level of superior mes. A. 3) Anterior below the superior mesenteric A
4) Anterior below the inferior mesenteric A 5) Anterior at the level of superior M.A.
Que.79 Who criteria for semen analysis, all are true for normal except 1) forward propelling motility >15%(strict criteria) 2) normal morphology >25% 3) volume of 1ml 4) Sperm count >20million
Que.80 B/L mobile true vocal cords, infiltrating of aretynoid, involving false cord, treatment is
1) Transverse hemi laryngectomy 2) Vertical hemi laryngectomy 3) radiation and chemotherapy
4) total laryngectomy
Que.81 In universal immunization, which is not included 1) Hepatitis B 2) BCG 3) TT 4) Measles
Que.82 hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in A/E 1) Cushings 2) Renal artery stenosis
3) END STAGE RENAL DISEASE 4) …
Que.83 Absence of Corpus callosum leads to 1) Hemiparesis 2) Hemianaesthesia 3) AStereognosis 4) No neurological DEFECT
Que.84 Transparency of cornea is maintained by A/E 1) Mitotic figures in the cornea
2) Wide separated collagen bands 3) Hydration of corneal epithelium 4) Unmyelinated nerve fibers
Que.85 Furesemide, true is 1) Acts on PCT 2) Given only by parenteral route 3) Used in pulmonary oedema 4) ….
Que.86 Thiazide causes all except 1) Hyperglycemia 2) Increased calcium excretion 3) Increased blood uric acid levels 4) Used in CCF
Que.87 Drug stopped on the day of operation 1) Metformin 2) Atenolol 3) Amlodepin 4) Statins
Que.88 Fourth lobe of liver by Couniyad’s classification 1) Left lobe 2) Right lobe 3) Quadrate lobe
4) Caudate lobe
Que.89 Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney because of 1) normal variant 2) congenital BL…
3) obstructive uropathy 4) Intrauterine infections and scars
Que.90 On post mortem of a new born, kidney shows radial cysts. Which of the following finding would be associated with this condition 1) imperforate anus 2) hepatic cysts with fibrosis 3) absent ureters 4) …
que.91 cervical incompetence. G3 presents with 2 previous 2nd trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks with funneling of cervix. What should be done 1) McDonald’s suturing 2) Fothergill’s suturing
3) DINOPROSTONE.. 4) .MISOPROSTOL.
que.92 Congenital anomaly associated most commonly with urothelial cancers 1) Extrophy of bladder 2) Medullary sponge kidney 3) duplication of ureters 4)
Que.93 development of genital development, what is true 1) Y chromosome is associated with ovary development 2) Genital ridge develops at5th week 3) male genitals develop earlier than female
4) EXTERNAL GENITALIA developed at 10th weeks
Que.94 Patient with heart disease, which drug is not used in patient of haemorrhage to control PPH
1) 2) oxytocin 3) misoprostol 4) METHERGIN
Que.95 baby not passed meconium for 48 hours, presents with vomiting and distension of abdomen, next investigation is 1) barium enema 2) manometry 3) esophagogram 4) fecal fat estimation
Que.96 with CSF all are true except 1) pH less than blood 2) No neutrophils present 3) formed by arachnoid villi 4) persistant leakage causes headache
Que.97 Transitional epithelium is seen in all except 1) collecting duct2) calyces 3) ureter 4) bladder
Que.[snip] Gastroesophageal junctional adeno carcinoma is approached by following sequence 1) abdomen-thorax 2) thorax -abdomen 3) thorax – abdo-neck 4) abdo-mouth
Que.99 dangerous area of eye 1) ciliary body 2) optic nerve 3) sclera 4) retina
Que.100 perforators not present in 1) ankle 2) below inguinal ligament 3) calf 4) distal to calf
Que.101 pericardial pain is conducted through 1) deep CARDIAC plexus 2) superficial CARDIAC plexux 3) phrenic 4) subcostal nerves
Que.102 which muscle is not punctured during mid-axillary line thorasic puncture 1) internal ntercostal 2) external intercostal 3) transverse thorasis 4) innermost intercostals
Que.103 FNAC Needle Gauze size 1) 26-28 2) 22-26 3) 18-22 4) 16-18
Que.104 # penis with intact Buck’s facia. Blood extravasates in 1) butterfly shaped 2) scrotum and penis only 3) Scrotum, penis, anterior abdominal wall 4) penile shaft only
Que.105 duodenal ulcer with bleeding. Haematocrit 10 after transfusion. Pulse 110, BP 100/70. leeding not controlled by endoscopic procedure. Next line of management 1) PPI 2) Distal astrectomy + removal of bleeding portion of duodenum 3) Subtotal Gastrectomy truncal vagotomy and controlling bleeders 4) Duodenotomy, with controlling bleeder and Pyloroplasty.
que.106 Ogilive syndrome, true is all except 1) mechanical obstruction 2) Partial bowel wall bstruction 3) Ileus after morphine ingestion 4) AFTER SURGERY
Que.107 Most common site of sub ependymal giant cell astrocytoma 1) lateral ventrical 2) foramen of morgagni 3) 4th ventricle 4) …
Que.108 reye’s syndrome, histopathological finding 1) Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged itochondria
2) Endoplasmic reticulum DILATATION 3) Glycogen depletion 4) Perinuclear staining
Que.109a best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35 1) DNA test 2) 72 HR Foecal fat estimation 3) CT chest 4) N NAMED TEST??? DONT REMEMBER
Que.109b child with H/O respiratory problem. best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after weat chloride test 25 and 35 1) DNA test 2) Foecal fat estimation 3) CT chest 4)
Que.110 Fluorosis, true is all except 1) most common cause of dental caries in children
2) genu valgum 3) nalgonda for defloridation 4) deposited in bone and muscle Que.111 most common site of spinal tumour 1) extramedullary intradural 2) extra dural 3) intra medullary 4) …
Que.112 initiation and maintenance of primitive streak is 1) FGF8 2) BMPr4 3) EGRF 4) branchy….. Que.120 bisphosphonates are used in all except
1) hypercalcemia 2) cancer 3) osteoporosis 4) hypervitaminosis D
Que.121 Osteomalacia, true are all except 1) increased serum calcium 2) increased serum alkaline phosphatase 3) looser’s zones 4) proximal myopathy Que.122 Pectus excavatum, surgery is indicated in 1) FEV1/FVC ratio <0.6 2) 80% of expected 3) ventilatory capacity 4) FEV1 60% at max exercise toleration
Que.123 FE Na <1 is seen in 1) ATN 2) Renal artery stenosis 3) intrinsic renal failure 4) pre renal
Que.124 Good clinical practice not required in 1) pre clinical testing 2) Phase 1 3) phase 2 4) phase Que.125 hyaline cartilage collagen present is 1) type 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Que.126 classification of bone tumors 1) manchester 2) TNM 3) Einkein 4) ..
Que.127 white matter lesion with hyperdense image on thalamus. Diagnosis is 1) Krabbe 2) etachromatic leucodystrophy 3) Kanawell’s disease 4) Alexander’s dis
Que.128 ketoacidosis all are true except 1) hyper ventilation 2) pain in abdomen 3) bradycardia
Que.129 cerebral metabolic rate is increased in 1) propofol 2) ketamine 3) fluranes 4)staging system for bone sarcomas- ennekings staging better than tnm followed by ajcc.
sexual diff:5th week ref:harrison
5th metatarsal......p.breves ref:bdc
5 HT3 higest affinity:PALAVOSETRAN ref:katzung
Acridin orange (AO) is a very simple selective, not a specific simultaneous stain for DNA and RNA. The staining pattern of AO (green fluorescence for DNA, red fluorescence for RNA) is a function of the dye concentration, which has to be adjusted in such a way that AO bound to DNA is a monomeric intercalation form, whereas AO bound to RNA is a complex of dye polymers and the RNA. AO can be used as a vital stain without fixation of the cells. Depending on the buffer used for the dilution of the dye and the pH AO can also stain lysosomes. The absorption of AO is in between 440 and 480 nm (blue), the emission is in between 520 nm (green for DNA) and 650 nm (orange for RNA).
treatment for nasal hematoma... drain- or else it leads to septal necrosis. treatment for pars flaccida perforation- mastoidectomy with tympanoplasty.......treatment for that larynx cancer involving arytenoids. was vertical hemilaryngectomy... coz radiotherapy should not be used in ca larynx involving vocal cords or arytenoids as there is increased risk of perichondritis.... decreases cerebral metabolism- thiopentone......not seen with fast inj. of mivacurium- hypertension..... not seen in diabetic ketoacidosis- bradycardia..... not seen in siadh- hypotension.... not true about ogilvie's syn- mech. obstruction, coz its a pseudo obstructin..... wrong about phenytoin- follows zero order kinetics at low doses..... toxin for epidemic dropsy- sanguinarine......vaccination in a 3 yr old cild who has been given dpt and opv- bcg, measles and booster of opv and dpt........seen in subcentre- MPW...........CICATRICIAL ALOPECIA NOT SEEN IN- ALOPECIA AREATA......LAST TO BE OPENED IN AUTOPSY FOR ASPHYXIA- NECK..... PT. WITH PURPURA ON LOWER LIMBS AND SWOLLEN KNEES WILL HAVE IgA NEPHROPATHY. ITS A CASE OF HUS AND IN HUS, KIDNEY RESEMBLES THAT OF IgA NEPHROPATHY.... NOT SEEN IN SCHIZOPHRENIA- MOOD SYMP..... ION REQ FOR PCR- Mg.... WATER LILY SIGN- HYDATID CYST.... EGG ON SIDE APPEARANCE- UNCORR. TGA........INCREASE IN CANCER WITH - EXOSTROPHY OF BLADDER.... MOST COMMON SITE OF ASTROCYTOMAS IN TUB SCLEROSIS- FORAMEN OF MONRO.... BONE TUMOR CLASSIFICATION- ENNEKING'S...... TREATMENT FOR DUODENAL ULCER WITH BLEEDING WITH BLOOD VESSEL AT ITS BASE- SURGERY, COZ EVEN THOUGH THE VITALS WERE STABLE, ANY DU WITH A VESSEL AT ITS BASE SHOULD BE OPERATED COZ THERE IS HIGH CHANCE OF REBLEED....
TRANS HIATAL SURGERY APPROACH- ABD- NECK ( CHEST IS NOT OPENED)......LEFT RENAL VEIN CROSSES THE AORTA ANT. AND BELOW THE SMA..... SERTOLI CELLS HAVE RECEPTORS FOR- FSH.....MEIOSIS OCCURS WHEN PRIM. SPERMATOCYTE FORMS A SEC. SP...... INCREASED MSAFP IN - HYD. MOLE....... MEDIA FOR V. CHOLERAE- TCBS, WRONG ABOUT C.DIPHTHERIA- TOXIN PRODUCTION DEPENDS ON PLASMIDS.... WORST IN PREGNANCY- EISENMENGER........THYROID CYST IN 4 YR OLD- SURGERY.... DANGER AREA OF EYE- CILIARY BODY.... MAX. HCO3 EXCRETION IN - PCT.... FUROSEMIDE- DECREASES CALCIUM.... FOR BLOOD SPILT ON FLOOR- USE SODIUM HYPOCHLORITE.... FALSE ABOUT FIBRATES- ABSORBTION DECREASED BY FOOD... ... FALSE ABOUT NITRIC OXIDE- INCREASES cAMP..... MONITORING NOT REQ FOR- METFORMIN..... KANAWEL'S SIGN IN- TENOSYNOVITIS..... INCREASES BSL- GLUCOCORTICOIDS.... NOT SEEN IN OSTEOMALACIA- HYPERCALCEMIA.... NOT SEEN IN BASEMENT MEMBRANE- RHODOPSIN.... C/I IN PPH IN A PT. WITH RF- ERGOMETRINE....
PAS +ve ALL EXCEPT- LIPIDS.... NOT ESSENTIAL FOR TOF- PULMONARY STENOSIS.... HEART AMYLOID- ANP....
JUNCTION BETWEEN SMA AND IMA IN COLON- SIGMOID FLEXURE....CORNEA TRANSPARENCY DUE TO ALL EX. - HYDRATION.... RETROCECAL APPENDICITIS- PAINFUL EXTENSION, COZ IT LIES ON PSOAS.... BEST TO EXCLUDE PUL. EMBOLISM- D-DIMER.... HAMPTON'S HUMP IN- PUL. EMBOLISM.....TREATMENT FOR DIAPHRAG. HERNIA- NGT..... ABSENCE OF CORPUS CALLOSUM- NO DEFICIT.... TREATMENT FOR STEMI- THROMBOLYSIS.... NOT SEEN IN ESRD- HYPOKALEMIA..... COUNCILMAN BODIES IN ALC. CIRRHOSIS.... VACCINE NOT GIVEN IN CONVULSIONS- DPT..... NOT INDICATE DISPERSION- MODE.... 1ST CASE TO SOME TO THE DOCTOR- INDEX CASE.... CASPASES FOR- APOPTOSIS.... SEEN IN MVP- MYXOMATOUS DEGEN. OF MV.... MMR- DENOM.- NO. OF LIVE BIRTHS PER 1 LAC....POLYHYDRAMNIOS SEEN IN ALL EX.- RENAL AGENESIS.... SCHICK +VE INDICATES THAT PT. IS SUSCEPTIBLE TO THE DISEASE...
NOT A METHOD OF Hb. ESTIMATION- WINTROBE ........TREATMENT FOR CERVICAL INCOMP. IN 2nD TRIMESTER- MCDONALD'S STITCH..... SAFE STRATEGY FOR- TRACHOMA.... MOST COMMON SEIZURES IN NEONATE- SUBTLE..... PERFORATORS NOT SEEN IN - BELOW INGUINAL LIG........ GONIOMETER FOR- b]pulm artery c]bronchus d]bronchial artery ans...lt side pulm artery ........rt side eparterial bronchus...??? was any side specified....in question...??FENa is an accurate screening test for differentiating prerenal failure
versus acute tubular necrosis. [size=18:d117fd3f81][color=darkblue:d117fd3f81]A value below 1 percent suggests prerenal disease, as the physiologic response to a decrease in renal perfusion is an increase in sodium reabsorption to control ypovolemia[/color:d117fd3f81][/size:d117fd3f81]. Values above 2 percent usually indicate acute tubular necrosis: either excess sodium is lost due to tubular damage, or the damaged glomeruli result in hypervolemia resulting in the normal response of sodium wasting. Values between 1 and 2 may be seen in either disorder. In renal tract obstruction, values may be either higher or lower than 1%

hello friends post here remaining questions and paste
answers with references..........
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 04:47 pm

hats off to eagle for recollecting all these questions. u have done a gr8 job man!

my friend Kumar Guru and i tried to recollect on our own and i think we can add some more questions and fill in the lacunae of those posted by eagle. I will quote his Q nos wherever i'm adding something.

Q1: i think one of the options was 5HT3
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 04:55 pm

Q11: 4th option - Forced position
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:02 pm

Q12: 4th option: none of the above or any of the above not sure

Q16: the third choice was dietary value of individual food constituents
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:05 pm

Q18: the options were (i think)
inhibitors of anaerobic glycolysis
stimulators of anaerobic glycolysis
inhibitors of electron transport chain
phosphodiesterase inhibitors
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:13 pm

Q20 essentially same as eagle's but with few added details

3 yr old girl posted for tonsillectomy found to have midline cystic swelling below thyroid which is asymptomatic. On USG thyroid gland is normal and the cystic swelling is thick walled. What should be done next?
Surgery
X-ray chest
Antibiotic
Percutaneous aspiration
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:14 pm

exact options of Q21

Surgical drainage
Continued observation in hospital
I.V. antibiotics for 10 days
Discharge on oral antibiotics and follow up after 2 weeks
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:22 pm

Q26: 4th option: mixed with sodium bicarbonate
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:37 pm

Q27: anoerexia was one of the symptoms mentioned
the 4th option was HIV i think.
the answer is hypothyroidism because hypothalamic content of dopamine decreasesin hypothyroidism leading to unopposed action of TRH which has increased in hypothyr on the prolactin secreting cells. the longer the duration of hypothyr the more chances of galactorrhoea. prolactin levels are usually <100.
ref- speroff's endocrinology chapter amenorrhoea pg 405, 7th/e
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:41 pm

q24
4th option: abnormal waveform in ductus venosus on doppler
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:44 pm

Q31: ECG was not normal. there was T-wave inversion in every beat of V1. rhythm was regular, rate seemed ok, p wave and QRS seemed ok. the rhythm was SA nodal and there was no dissociation
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:45 pm

Q31 it was syncopal attack not unconsciousness
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:47 pm

Q31 4 th option complete heart block

sorry for 3 posts for same Q
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 05:52 pm

Q 32 4th option: warfarin

Q 33 Pt having chest(or maybe epigastric, not sure) discomfort for 1 hr. ECG shows ST segment elevation in inferior leads. Treatment is:
PPI
Aspirin
Beta blockers
Thrombolytic therapy
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 06:04 pm

Q45: An 18 yr old boy presents with rash on the shins and swelling of knee. There is h/o hematuria. Urinalysis shows RBC 3+, protein 1+. Findings on renal biopsy will be:
Fusion of podocytes
ATN (not sure, copied from eagle)
Mesangial deposition of IgA
Thickening of basement membrane
vinodhini

Total Posts: 19



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 06:57 pm

Que.1 Tryptans act through
1)5HT1a
2)5HT1b
3)5HT1c
4)5HT3
answer 2.ref tripathi

Que.2 Therapeutic monitoring is required for all except
1) Phenytoin
2) Cyclosporine
3) Tacrolimus
4) Metformin
ans.4.not sure

Que.3 Kanavel’s sign present in
1) Tenosynovitis
2) Carpal tunnel syndrome
3) Trigger finger
4) Duputreyans contractures
ans,1 ref,net

Que.4 Acridine dye used to stain
1) DNA-RNA
2) Protein
3) Lipid
4) Carbohydrate
ans,?

Que.5 Stains for lipid are all except
1) Oil red O
2) Congo red
3) Sudan III
4) Sudan black

ans,2 ref robbins

Que.6 True about protease inhibitors are A/E
1) MDR-1 gene
2) Metabolized by hepatic enzymes
3) Drug interaction
4) Saquinavir most potent action on CYP3A4


Que.7 Shoulder pain in laparoscopy is due to
1) Subphrenic abscess
2) CO2 narcosis
3) Positioning of patient
4) Compression of lungs

Que.8 PAS positive a/e
1) Glycogen
2) lipid
3) fungal Cell wall
4) basement membrane

ans,2

Que.9 for Vibrio cholera, medium used
1) Thayer martin
2) TCBS
3) Scirrow
4) ..

ans,2

Que.10 Primary impact injury is most common in
1) head
2) chest
3) abdomen
4) leg



Que.11 Telefona
1) Pulling of hair
2) Beating on soles
3) Beating on ears
4) …

ans.3 ref reddy

Que.12 In tandem [bleep], number of [bleep] fired
1) 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4

ans.2

Que.13 Vitreous humor is sent in
1) Phenol
2) HCl
3) Xylol
4) alcohol

Que.14 Fixing of cervical smear is done by
1) Ethanol
2) Acetone
3) Xylene
4) ..

ans,2

Que.15 Blood spills on floor are cleaned by
1) Sodium hypochlorite
2) Iodine
3)
4)

ans.1

Que.16 true about dietery allowance are all except
1) RDA
2) adequate intake
3) dietary intake according to the food composition
4) food intake according to the upper limit of RDA


Que.17which of the following person is present in a sub centre
1) multi purpose worker
2) doctor
3) lab technician
4) health educator

ans.1

Que.18 Ionic exchange in the corneal endothelium depends upon the

metabolic rate. In which of the following Ionic exchange is blocked
1) Anaerobic glycolysis inhibition
2) Aerobic glycolysis
3) Phosphodiesterease inhibitors
4)inhibitors of ETC

Que.19 Gall bladder epithelium is
1) simple columnar
2) simple columnar with brush border
3) squamous
4) cuboidal with stercocilia

ans.1

Que.20 3 year old girl posted for tonsillectomy, found to have midline

cystic swelling which is painless below the hyoid. What should be done

next
1) Surgery
2) X-ray chest
3) antibiotics
4) Aspiration

ans.1

Que.21 After laparoscopic appendicectomy, patient had fall from bed on

her nose, after whish she had swelling in the nose and slight difficulty in

breathing. What should be done next
1) Antibiotics for 7 to 14 days and discharge
2) Intravenous antibiotics for 7-10 days
3) Surgical drainage
4) Observation in hospital

ans.3


Que.22 Goniometry is measurement of
1) urethrovesical angle
2) number of gonococci
3)width of genital hiatus

ans.1

Que.23 Metabolic alkalosis is seen in
1) Increased mineralocorticoid
2) decreased mineralocorticoids
3) increased base excretion
4) decreased H+ ion secretion


Que.24 Following drugs act on GABA-A except
1) thiopentone
2) midazolam
3) zopiclone
4) promethazine


Que.25 Nephelometry depends on following law
1) Lambert Beer law
2) Scattering of light from particles
3) refraction of light
4) decread intensity of light


Que.26 Thiopentone true are A/E
1) induction agent of choice in shock
2) cerebroprotective
3) contraindicated in porphyria
4) mixed with sodium bicarbonate

Que.27 18 year old girl presents with amenorrhoea, milk discharge,

weight loss. Diagnosis is
1) Cancer
2) Anorexia nervosa
3) Hypothyroidism
4)HIV

ANS.2

Que.28 True about vitiligo are all except
1) Genetic predisposition
2) Leucotrichia is associated with good prognosis
3) PUVA-B is used for treatment
4) Topical steroids give good results.


Que.29 Down’s syndrome, true is A/E
1) PAPP- A increased
2) Increased b-HCG
3) Absence of nasal bone
4)


Que.30 In patient with high clinical suspicion of pulmonary

thromboembolism, best investigation would be
1) D-dimer
2) CT angiography
3) Catheter angiography
4)multisector CT angio


Que.31 70 year old hypertensive with unconsiousness with normal ECG

cause is
1) pulmonary thromboembolism
2) vasovagal attack
3) temporal lobe epilepsi
4)complete heart block


Que.32 Thrombo prophylaxis are all except
1) aspirin
2) warfarin
3) heparin
4) AT 3

ANS.4

Que.33 pt of myocardial ischemia
1)heparin
2)pantoprezole
3)aspirin
4)thrombolytic therapy


Que.34 in a pt with retro caecal appendicitis following maneuvers will

produce pain
1) flection at hip
2) extension at hip
3)medial rotation
4)lateral rotation


Que.35 cryoprecipitate not seen
1)factor 8
2) factor 9
3) vWF
4) fibrinogen

ans.2 ref harrison

Que.36 in a caase due to asphyxia last to be opened during

dissections
1) neck
2) thorax
3) abdomen
4) brain


Que.37 what is seen in normal person on lying down
1) increase in venous return
2)
3)
4)


Que.38 exercise causes which of the following
1) increase in muscle blood flow occurs after ½ min
2) increase in body tempeture
3)
4)


Que.39 most common type of seizure in neonates
1) tonic
2) clonic
3) subtle
4) myoclonic


Que.40 block in the 2 nd part of axilary nearve what will searve as

collateral
1) subscapular and poster circumflex humeral
2) circumflex scapular and ant circumflex scapular
3)
4)


Que.44 post ductal compression of aorta collateral to serve are
1) inteercostal and inferior epigastric
2)
3)
4)

Que.45 a child presents with non blanching rash over the extensor

aspect of arm with swelling over knee urine analysis show proteinurea 1

+ and rbc 3+ on kidney biopsy which finding will be seen
1) fusion of podocytes
2) ATN
3) depositions of Ig A
4)thickening of membrane

ans.3 ref ghai

Que.46 collapsing glomarulopathy following is seen
1) proliferation of parietal cells
2) tuft necrosis
3)mesangiolysis
4)


Que.47 Peristalsis of ureter depends on
1) sympathetic flow
2) parasympathetic flow
3) both
4) pacemaker in smooth muscle of ureter


Que.48 In MVP, valve degeneration is
1) hyaline degeneration
2) myxomatous degeneration
3) .. ..
4) .. ..


Que.49 In rheumatic carditis with MR, following finding will be seen
1) Increased residual volume
2) Increased PEFR
3) decreased TLC
4) Increased ventilatory capacity


Que.50 # 5th metatarsal following forceful inversion is due to forceful

contraction of following muscle.
1) peroneus longus
2) peroneus brevius
3) peroneus tertius
4) extensor digitorum brevis

Que.51 In emergrncy tracheostomy following structures are damaged

except
1) Isthmus of thyroid
2) inferior thyroid vein
3) inferior thyroid artery
4) thyoidea ima


Que.52 Whats the uppermost structure in left lung hilus
1) pulmonary artery
2) pulmo. vein
3) bronchial artery
4) broncus

ans.1 ref chaurashia

Que.53 In systemic capillary blood flow, all are seen except
1) Increased protein content
2) decreased pH
3) shift of oxygen dissociation curve to left
4) increased hematocrit.


Que.54 Cardiac O2 consumption is Directly proportional to
1) mean arterial pressure
2) external cardiac work done
3) heart rate
4)quiscent heart negligble


Que.55 micronodular cirrhosis is seen in all except
1) active hepatitis B
2) Alcoholic cirrhosis
3) Haemachromatosis
4) Chronic cirrhosis secondary to biliary stasis


Que.56 Phenytoin, all are true except
1) Induces enzymes
2) Zero order kinetics at low dose
3) Half life increases with increasing dose
4) Highly protein bound


Que.57 which of the following drug binds most avidly to 5HT3
1) granisetron
2) ondansetron
3) dolasetron
4) PALAVOSETRAN


Que.58 marker of acute hepatitis B
1) HBV DNA
2) IgG HBc
3) HBs Ag
4) HBe Ag


Que.59 A 30 year old man, presents with 6 month history of facial pain

and fever. On antibiotic therapy, fever subsided. After 1 month again

had symptoms of mucopurilent discharge in middle meatus. Next best

step
1) Non contrast CT nose
2) X ray maxillary sinus
3) MRI
4) Inferior meatus puncture


Que.60 Tongue muscle develop from
1) mesoderm of pharyngeal pouch
2) Occipital SOMITE
3)
4) ..


Que.61 A 3 year old child with h/o fever, dry cough with lower lobe

consolidation, improved with antibiotics for 7 days. Follow up after 8

weeks revealed increased consolidation. Next step in investigation
1) bronchoscopy
2) nasopharyngeal culture
3) CT
4)


Que.62 meiosis in spermatogenesis occurs in which step
1) Iry spermatogonia to secondary spermatogonia
2)
3)
4)


Que. 63 surfactant action
1) Breaks structure of water
2) lubricates CO2
3) make capilariay surface hydrophilic
4)


Que.64 increase in maternal ser AFP is seen in
1) downs
2) molar pregnancy
3) overestimation of gestation age
4) renal agenasis


Que.65 which Is not essential feature of TOF
1) pulmonary valvular stenosis
2) infundibular stenosis
3) overriding of aorta
4)right ventricular hypertrophy


Que.66 linkage studies uses the principal of
1) DNa polymorfism
2)
3)
4)


Que.67 methode of hb estimation except
1) drabkins
2) sahl’s
3) spectrophotometry
4) wintrobes


Que.68 in PCR following is used
1) Ca++
2) Mg++
3) Li+
4) Na+

Que.69 pulmonary hypertension is a\W all except
1) hyperventelation
2) obesity
3) phenfluramin
4) high altitude


Que.70 clomiphen citrate is a\W all except
1) polycystic overy
2) foetal anamoly
3) multiple pregnency
4) ovarian cancer

Que.71 diagnosis of asherman syndrome is done by all except
1) Endometrial culture
2) hysteroscopy
3) Hysterosalpingography
4) saline infusion sonography


Que.72 Pancytpenia with cellular marrow is seen in all except
1) PNH
2) Megaloblastic anaemia
3) myelodysplasia
4) congenital dyserythropoietic anaemia


Que.73 Uterine relaxant with Least side effects
1) Ritodrine
2) Nifedipine
3) Progesteron
4) Magnesium sulphate


Que.74 Following is associated with max risk of invasive cervical cancer
1) HPV 16 with dysplasia
2) Mild dysplasia
3) High grade dysplasia
4) HIV associated


Que.75 Internal podalic version for transverse lie complication is
1) uterine rupture
2) cervical laceration
3) Uterine inertia
4) vaginal laceration


Que.76 Drugs causing Hyperglycemia
1) corticosteroids
2) b blockers
3)
4)


Que.77 Not seen in VHL
1) Pheochromocytoma
2) Pancreatic tumour
3) Endolymphatic sac tumour
4) islet cell tumour


Que. 78 left renal vein crosses aorta at the level of
1) Posterior at level of superior mesenteric artery
2) anterior above the level of superior mes. A.
3) Anterior below the superior mesenteric A
4) Anterior below the inferior mesenteric A
5) Anterior at the level of superior M.A.

Que.79 Who criteria for semen analysis, all are true for normal except
1) forward propelling motility >15%(strict criteria)
2) normal morphology >25%
3) volume of 1ml
4) Sperm count >20million


Que.80 B/L mobile true vocal cords, infiltrating of aretynoid, involving

false cord, treatment is
1) Transverse hemi laryngectomy
2) Vertical hemi laryngectomy
3) radiation and chemotherapy
4) total laryngectomy

Que.81 In universal immunization, which is not included
1) Hepatitis B
2) BCG
3) TT
4) Measles


Que.82 hypertension with hypokalemia is seen in A/E
1) Cushings
2) Renal artery stenosis
3) ESRD
4) primary hyperaldosteronism

Que.83 Absence of Corpus callosum leads to
1) Hemiparesis
2) Hemianaesthesia
3) Stereognosis loss
4) No neurological sequelae


Que.84 Transparency of cornea is maintained by A/E
1) Mitotic figures in the cornea
2) Wide separated collagen bands
3) Hydration of corneal epithelium
4) Unmyelinated nerve fibers


Que.85 Furesemide, true is
1) Acts on PCT
2) Given only by parenteral route
3) Used in pulmonary oedema
4) cause mild diuresis

que.86 Thiazide causes all except
1) Hyperglycemia
2) Increased calcium excretion
3) Increased blood uric acid levels
4) Used in CCF


Que.87 Drug stopped on the day of operation
1) Metformin
2) Atenolol
3) Amlodepin
4) Statins


Que.88 Fourth lobe of liver by Couniyad’s classification
1) Left lobe
2) Right lobe
3) Quadrate lobe
4) Caudate lobe


Que.89 Persistent foetal lobulation of adult kidney because of
1) normal variant
2) congenital BL…
3) obstructive uropathy
4) Intrauterine infections and scars


Que.90 On post mortem of a new born, kidney shows radial cysts.

Which of the following finding would be associated with this condition
1) imperforate anus
2) hepatic cysts with fibrosis
3) absent ureters
4) …


Que.91 cervical incompetence. G3 presents with 2 previous 2nd

trimester abortions presents at 22 weeks with funneling of cervix. What

should be done
1) McDonald’s suturing
2) Fothergill’s suturing
3) ..
4) ..


Que.92 Congenital anomaly associated most commonly with urothelial

cancers
1) Extrophy of bladder
2) Medullary sponge kidney
3) duplication of ureters
4)


Que.93 development of genital development, what is true
1) Y chromosome is associated with ovary development
2) Genital ridge develops at5th week
3) male genitals develop earlier than female
4) fully developed at 10th weeks


Que.94 Patient with heart disease, which drug is not used in patient of

haemorrhage to control PPH
1) methyl ergometrine
2) oxytocin
3) misoprostol
4) carboprost


Que.95 baby not passed meconium for 48 hours, presents with vomiting

and distension of abdomen, next investigation is
1) contrast barium enema
2) manometry
3) esophagogram
4) fecal fat estimation


Que.96 with CSF all are true except
1) pH less than blood
2) No neutrophils present
3) formed by arachnoid villi
4) persistant leakage causes headache


Que.97 Transitional epithelium is seen in all except
1) collecting duct
2) calyces
3) ureter
4) bladder


Que.[snip] Gastroesophageal junctional adeno carcinoma is

approached by following sequence
1) abdomen-thorax
2) thorax -abdomen
3) thorax – abdo-neck
4) abdo-mouth


Que.99 dangerous area of eye
1) ciliary body
2) optic nerve
3) sclera
4) retina


Que.100 perforators not present in
1) ankle
2) below inguinal ligament
3) mid thigh
4) distal to calf

Que.101 pericardial pain is conducted through
1) deep plexus
2) superficial plexux
3) phrenic
4) subcostal nerves


Que.102 which muscle is not punctured during mid-axillary line thorasic

puncture
1) internal intercostal
2) external intercostal
3) transverse thorasis
4) innermost intercostals


Que.103 FNAC Needle Gauze size
1) 26-28
2) 22-26
3) 18-22
4) 16-18


Que.104 # penis with intact Buck’s facia. Blood extravasates in
1) butterfly shaped
2) scrotum and penis only
3) Scrotum, penis, anterior abdominal wall
4) penile shaft only


Que.105 duodenal ulcer with bleeding. Haematocrit 10 after transfusion.

Pulse 110, BP 100/70. bleeding not controlled by endoscopic

procedure. Next line of management
1) PPI
2) Distal gastrectomy + removal of bleeding portion of duodenum
3) duodenotomy,control bleeder,truncal vagotomy and antrectomy
4) Duodenotomy, with controlling bleeder and Pyloroplasty.


Que.106 Ogilive syndrome, true is all except
1) mechanical obstruction
2) Partial bowel wall obstruction
3) Ileus after morphine ingestion
4)


Que.107 Most common site of sub ependymal giant cell astrocytoma
1) temporal horn of lareral ventricle
2) foramen of monro
3) 4th ventricle
4)


Que.108 reye’s syndrome, histopathological finding
1) Mitochondrial blebs and enlarged mitochondria
2) Endoplasmic reticulum(don’t remember)
3) Glycogen depletion
4) Perinuclear staining


Que.109a best investigation to rule out cystic fibrosis after sweat

chloride test 25 and 35
1) DNA test
2) Foecal fat estimation
3) CT chest
4)

Que.109b child with H/O respiratory problem. best investigation to rule

out cystic fibrosis after sweat chloride test 25 and 35
1) DNA test
2) Foecal fat estimation
3) CT chest
4)

Que.110 Fluorosis, true is all except
1) most common cause of dental caries in children
2) genu valgum
3) nalgonda for defloridation
4) deposited in bone and muscle


Que.111 most common site of spinal tumour
1) extramedullary intradural
2) extra dural
3) intra medullary
4) …


Que.112 initiation and maintenance of primitive streak is
1) FGF8
2) BMPr4
3) EGRF
4) nodagen gene

Que.113 Mivacurium when given in high doses, all are true except
1) bronchospasm
2) hypertension
3) flushing
4) rapid onset of action


Que.114 All are characteristic of schizophrenia except
1) third person hallucination
2) inappropriate emotions
3) long stretches of mood changes
4) formal thought disorder


Que.115 rapid flow in the neurons is by all except
1) dyenin
2) kinesin
3) neuro filaments
4) micro filaments

Que.116 type A personality false is
1) hostile
2) time pressure
3) competitiveness
4) mood fluctuations


Que.117a senile cardiac amyloidosis
1) transthyretin
2) ANP
3) beta 2 microglobin
4) pyerdin

Que.118 shock lung, histopathological finding is
1) diffuse alveolar necrosis
2) pulmonary oedema
3) interstitial pneumonia
4)


Que.119 Most common brain tumor in NF1
1) Optic glioma
2) astrocytosis
3) glioblastoma multiforme
4)


Que.120 bisphosphonates are used in all except
1) hypercalcemia
2) cancer
3) osteoporosis
4) hypervitaminosis D

Que.121 Osteomalacia, true are all except
1) increased serum calcium
2) increased serum alkaline phosphatase
3) looser’s zones
4) proximal myopathy


Que.122 Pectus excavatum, surgery is indicated in
1) FEV1/FVC ratio <0.6
2) 80% of expected
3) ventilatory capacity
4) FEV1 60% at max exercise toleration


Que.123 FE Na <1 is seen in
1) ATN
2) Renal artery stenosis
3) intrinsic renal failure
4) pre renal

Que.124 Good clinical practice not required in
1) pre clinical testing
2) Phase 1
3) phase 2
4) phase 4


Que.125 hyaline cartilage collagen present is
1) type 1
2) 2
3) 3
4) 4



Que.126 classification of bone tumors
1) manchester
2) TNM
3) Einkein
4) ..


Que.127 white matter lesion with hyperdense image on thalamus.

Diagnosis is
1) Krabbe
2) Metachromatic leucodystrophy
3) Kanawell’s disease
4) Alexander’s dis


Que.128 ketoacidosis all are true except
1) dehydration
2) pain in abdomen
3) bradycardia
4) tacypnoea


Que.129 cerebral metabolic rate is increased in
1) propofol
2) ketamine
3) fluranes
4)

130.vaccine CI in seizures
1.DPT
2.measles
3.typhoid

131.basement membrane all except
1.laminin
2.nodagen
3.entactin
4.rhodopsin

132.SAFE strategy
1.trachoma



133.scruib typhus
1.trombiculid mite



134.kalaazar
1.sandfly
2.tsetse fly


135.hearing loss left ear pars flaccida perforation
management
1.tympanoplasty
2..tympanoplasty with mastoid exploration
3.antibiotics
4.

136.hamptons hump
1. pul emboli
2.bronchogenic ca



137.egg on side app
1.uncorrected TGA
2.TA


138.WATER LILY SIGN
1.hydatid cyst
2.hamartoma


139.HACEK GROUP




140.COMPARISON OF RESULTS WITH INTENDED OBJ
1.EVALUATION
2.MONITORING
3.INPUT OUTPUT ANALYSIS
4.NETWORK

141.MISINTEERPRATION OF REAL OBJECTS
1.ILLUSION
2. DELUSION
3.HALLUCINATION
4.

142.NOT APRINCIPLE OF LEARNING
1.MODELING
2.response prevention
3.catharisis
4.exposure

143.epidemic dropsy
1.sanguinarine



144.bicarbonate absorption
1.PCT
2.DCT


.

145.NO except
1.camp
2.vasomotor tone



146.APPARENTLY HEALTHY
1.SCREENING




147.low calcium for 2 wks
1.raised parathormone



148.schicks test




149.irreversible injury
1.amorphous densities in mitochondriaun


150.c.diphtheria true except
1.metachromatic granules
2.locally not invasive
3.elek,s test
4.toxin chromosomal gene
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 07:37 pm

Q58 the third option was anti HBsAg
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 08:48 pm

Q 63 4th choice binds oxygen

Q 74 choice
low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion(SIL)
high grade SIL
SIL with HPV 16

Q77 4th choice hemangioendothelioma

Q78 first 4 options are correctly written 5th was not there

Q 98 one choice was rt chest-abdomen
rest of all 3 choices had neck in it and had 3 parts
i think they were
abdomen-chest-neck
chest-abdomen-neck
neck-chest-abdomen

Q101 i think 4th option was intercostobrachial nerves

Q111 4th choice: all are equally common

Q122 A 12 yr old boy with pectus excavatum is brought for evaluation. He has no complaints of breathless on exertion however complains of intermittent wheezing. On examination mild pectus excavatum deformity of the chest is noted. which of the following findings on PFTs is an indication for surgery?
choices:
FEV1/FVC < 0.6
low exercise tolerance at maximal capacity
TLC 80% of predicted
PEFR 60% of predicted

Q123 4th choice prerenal azotemia

Q 127 third choice is Caravan's disease (i think, not 100% sure)

Q 129 cerebral oxygen demand is increased in

Q143 second choice BOAA

Q151 Cushing’s syndrome all are true except:
Central obesity
Easy bruisability
Glucose intolerance
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 09:06 pm

Q152 Sexually active man complains of burning micturation. On examination no penile ulcers present. Urine examination shows WBCs 50, leucocyte esterase test positive, rest normal. Urine negative for Neisseria gonorrhoea. Organism involved is:
Hemophilus ducreyi
Human papilloma virus
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum

Q153 A healthy neonate delivered at term develops respiratory distress and ultimately dies. similar history in prior term sibling. Cause is
Neonatal alveolar proteinosis was one of the choices
[not sure whether i have confused two questions into one Sad ]

Q154 A newborn develops develops respiratory distess at birth. On auscultation there are decreased breath sounds in left lung. Baby is ventilated with bag and mask and endotracheal tube is put but baby worsens. Further management is
1.Immediate surgery
2.CXR to check position of tube
3.Nasogastric intubation
4.

Q155 Lady with h/o typhoid 4 months back having diffuse hair loss for the past one month. Diagnosis is:
Androgenetic alopecia
Telogen effluvium
Anagen effluvium
Alopecia areata
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 09:17 pm

Q156 Cicatricial cause of alopecia are all except:
Alopecia areata
Lichen planus
Pseudopalena (something similar)

Q157 Which of the following is correctly matched?
A cells – insulin
B cells – somatostatin
D cells – glucagons
G cells - gastrin

Q158 Grievious hurt is A/E:
Loss of one kidney
Loss of one testis
Loss of hearing in one ear
Facial abrasion

Q 159 Primi with decreased fetal movements. Oligohydramnios in this case is caused by
Tracheo-oesophageal fistula
Bilateral renal agenesis
Anencephaly
Spina bifida ( not sure)

Q 160 Proteins with same structure and different sequence evolved through process that was
Convergent
Divergent
Opportunistic
Incidental
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 09:54 pm

Q 64 4th option is congenital nephrotic syndrome
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 09:55 pm

Q161 Group of drugs not used for sedation but with AE of sedation is
Antihistaminics, antidepressants
cant remember the other options

Q162 Pancreatic tumour, pituitary tumour, parathyroid hyperplasia, thyroid nodule, adrenal hyperplasia, skin angiofibroma is found in:
MEN 1
MEN 2A
MEN 2B
MEN 2C

Q163 Maternal mortality rate is:
No of maternal deaths / 1000 births
No of maternal deaths / 1000 live births
No of maternal deaths / 100000 births

Q 164 The first case that the investigator comes across in an epidemic is
Primary case
Index case
Secondary case

Q 165 Polio which is true:
Spastic paralysis
Increased muscle exercise and injectable vaccines can cause paralysis

Q 166 Mirena is
Progesterone IUCD

Q 167 Radiation therapy post-operatively in endometrial carcinoma is given in A/E:
Deep myometrial invasion
Positive pelvic nodes
Distension of uterine cavity

Q 168 PUFA are present in A/E:
Corn oil
Groundnut oil
Mustard oil
Fish oil

Q169 School eye checkup vision is checked by
School teachers (repeated Q Smile)

Q170 HIV window period is
From infection to detection of antibodies
From hiv to onset of symptoms
From Hiv to AIDS
From HIV to low CD4 count(200)
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 10:04 pm

Q 171 Langerhans cell marker is
CD 57
CD 1a
CD 3

Q 172 When the posterior interventricular artery arises from the circumflex artery, the circulation is
Right dominant
Left dominant

Q 173 SIADH causes A/E:
Hyponatremia
Volume depletion

Q 174 Ulnar nerve palsy causes A/E:
Claw hand
Hypothenar wasting
Anaesthesia of medial palm
Adductor pollicis is intact

Q 175 Man with right flank pain and hematuria. Urinalysis shows numerous RBCs. Diagnosis is
Ureteral calculus
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 11:32 pm

ANS .....
171.. CD1a.... sure

164 index case

168 mustard oil

162.. MEN 1
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 11:38 pm

150th option C was not kocally but deep tissue invasion...
kkrish

Total Posts: 274



Posted: Wed Nov 07, 2007 11:45 pm

Structures pierced during pleurocentesis In mid-axillary line are all except
1.innermost intercostal
2.ext. intercostal
3.int. intercostal
4.trans.thoracis

In Fine Needle Aspiration Cytology, needle used is
1.16-18no
2.18-22no
3.22-26no
4.26-30no

Part to be examined last in asphyxia death,
1.Head
2.Neck
3.Thorax
4.Abdomen


Most common type of epilepsy in infants
1.myoclonic
2.tonic
3. clonic
4.subtle

Which of the following match is correct
1.Delta cells - glucagon
2.Beta cells - somatostatin
3.Alpha cells -insulin
4.G cells - Gastrin
Most common tumour seen in pts wid neurofibromatosis type 1
1.Optic glioma
2.Pilocytic astrocytoma
3.Glioblastoma
4.Brainstem glioma

HACEK Group of Organisms include all except
1.Haemophilus aphrophilus
2.Acineobacter comitans
3.Cardiobacterium hominis
4.Eikenella corrodens

OC pill is contraindicated in patients receiving
1.rifampicin
2.pyrizinamide
3.ethambutol
4.streptomycin

Scrub typhus vector is
1.Thrombiculid mite
2.Reduvid bug
3.Enteric pathogens
4.Cyclops

During Tracheostomy following structure is least likely to be injured
1.Isthmus of gland
2.Thyroida Ima A.
3.Inf. thyroid veins
4.Inf. thyroid A.

Most common tumour seen in pts wid neurofibromatosis type 1
1.Optic glioma
2.Pilocytic astrocytoma
3.Glioblastoma
4.Brainstem glioma

HACEK Group of Organisms include all except
1.Haemophilus aphrophilus
2.Acineobacter comitans
3.Cardiobacterium hominis
4.Eikenella corrodens

OC pill is contraindicated in patients receiving
1.rifampicin
2.pyrizinamide
3.ethambutol
4.streptomycin

Scrub typhus vector is
1.Thrombiculid mite
2.Reduvid bug
3.Enteric pathogens
4.Cyclops

During Tracheostomy following structure is least likely to be injured
1.Isthmus of gland
2.Thyroida Ima A.
3.Inf. thyroid veins
4.Inf. thyroid A.
vinodhini

Total Posts: 19



Posted: Thu Nov 08, 2007 02:45 am

I HAVE ADDED ANOTHER 50 QUESTIONS ITS 203 SINCE I MISSED OUT 41 TO 43.SO CHECK OUT AND OTHER OPTIONS PLEASE.IF THERE R REPEATS AM SORRY.
151.correct match
1.b cells somatostatin
2.d cells glucagon
3.g cells gastrin
4.c cells insulin

152.lysosomal disorders
1.




153.polio true
1.spastic paralysis
2.PPI <3 YEARS
3.injectable produces paralysis
4.

154.in school first to see.......
1. school teachers



155.lancefield classification
1.m protein
2.carbohydrate cel, wall antigen



156.cushing`s syndrome except
1.striae
2.glucose intolerance
3.episodic hypertension
4.central obesity

157.endometrial carcinoma indicatiojn for radiotherapy except,
1.deep myometrial involvement
2.positive lymph node
3.poor differentiation
4.enlarged uterine cavity

158.caspase
1.apoptosis



159.councilman bodies
1.alcoholic hepatitis
2.autoimmune
3.acute viral hep[atitis
4.

160.worst prognosis in mother
1,eisenmenger complex




161.xray RDS echo normal, child died
1.tapvc
2.PULMONARY ALVEOLAR PROTEINOSIS



162.vit k
1.carboxylation
2.hydroxylation




163.first case to come to attention of investigator
1.primary case
2.secondary
3.index
4.

164.MMR
1.death per 1000 live births
2.


165.fibrates true except,





166.OCP Sshould not be given with
1.rifampicin
2.streptomycin
3.INH
4.pyrazinamide

167.JVP c wave
1.atrial comtraction
2.bulging of tricuspid into right atrium
3.


168.AA differing in sequence but structally similar
1.convergent
2.divergent
3.opportunistic
4.incidental

169.7 day old child obstructive pattern
1.brochiolitis obliterans




170.ulnar n injury except
1.claw hand
2.sensory loss of medial one third
3.adduction of thumb
4.wasting of hypothenar muscles

171.polyhromnios except
1.multiple pregnancy
2.TEF
3.anencephaly
4.BL renal agenesis

172.urothelial lining except
1.ureter
2.collecting duct
3.bladder
4.minor calyces

173.griveous hurt except
1.los of 1 testes
2.loss of 1 kidney
3.abrasion of face
4.loss of 1 eye

174.PATHOPHYSIOLOGY OF MENTAL DISORDER






175.41 yr old male sudden onset of right flank pain waving no other abnormality,hematuria
1.ureteral calculus




176.POLIO TRUE EXCEPT
1.REPORTING OF AFP LESS THAN 5 YEARS NOT REQUIRED





177.PHC
1.essential health care




178.non cicatrical alopecia
1.alopecia areata




179.viral infections true except,
1.mumps cause septic meningitis
2.measles cause SSPE
3.
4.

180.RECEPTOR OVER SERTOLI CELL
1.FSH
2.LH
3.INHIBIN
4.

181.LANGERHAN CELL HISTIOCYTOSIS
1.CD 1A
2.CD 57
3.CD68
4.CD 3

182.HIV WINDOW PERIOD
From infection to detection of antibodies
From hiv to onset of symptoms
From Hiv to AIDS
From HIV to low CD4 count(200)

183.Group of drugs not used for sedation but with AE of sedation is
antihistaminics, antidepressants
digitalis antiarrythmics


184.ady with h/o typhoid 4 months back having diffuse hair loss for the past one month. Diagnosis is:
Androgenetic alopecia
Telogen effluvium
Anagen effluvium
Alopecia areata

185.A newborn develops develops respiratory distess at birth. On auscultation there are decreased breath sounds in left lung. Baby is ventilated with bag and mask and endotracheal tube is put but baby worsens. Further management is
1.Immediate surgery
2.CXR to check position of tube
3.Nasogastric intubation

186.Sexually active man complains of burning micturation. On examination no penile ulcers present. Urine examination shows WBCs 50, leucocyte esterase test positive, rest normal. Urine negative for Neisseria gonorrhoea. Organism involved is:
Hemophilus ducreyi
Human papilloma virus
Chlamydia trachomatis
Treponema pallidum

187.When the posterior interventricular artery arises from the circumflex artery, the circulation is
Right dominant
Left dominant

188.SIADH causes A/E:
Hyponatremia
Volume depletion
HYPOURICEMIA


189.MEASURES OF DISPERSION
1.MODE
2.RANGE
3.STANDARD DEVIATION
4.VARIANCE

190.WATERSHED AREA BETWEEN SMA AND IMA
1.ASCENDING COL.ON
2.DESCENDING COLON
3.SPLENIC FLEXURE
4.HEPATIC FLEXURE


191.PUFA except
mustard
corn
soyabean
fish oil

192.hepatitis active
HBV DNA POLYMERASE
HBs AG
HB e AG


193.Pancreatic tumour, pituitary tumour, parathyroid hyperplasia, thyroid nodule, adrenal hyperplasia, skin angiofibroma is found in:
MEN 1
MEN 2A
MEN 2B
MEN 2C

194.MIRENA
1.PROGESTRONE IUCD




195.VACCINATION ONE AND A HALF YEAR CHILD






196.PEROXIDASE USED IN ESTIMATION OF
1.HEMOGLOBIN
2.GLUCOSE
3.AMMONIA


197.BENZODIAZEPENES TRUE
1.SAFER IN OVERDOSE
2.INDUCE METABOLISM OF OTHER DRUGS
3.ALL HAVE ACTIVE METABOLITES
4.

198.HYPERCALCEMIA EXCEPT
1.MULTIPLE MYELOMA




199.INFORMED CONSENT EXCEPT
1.




200.HYPOKALEMIA EXCEPT





201.MULTIPLE RENAL CYSTS ON AUTOPSY
1.IMPERFORATE ANUS
2.HEPATIC CYST WITH FIBROSIS


202.IN SYSTEMIC CAPPILARIES,ALL EXCEPT
1.PROTEIN CONTENT INCREASES
2.SHIFT OF OXYGEN DISSOCIATION CURVE TO LEFT



203.DM INTENSIVE CARE NOT NEEDED
1.PREGNANCY
2.DM WITH HYPERTENSION
3.POST RENAL TRANSPLANT
4.POSTURAL HYPOTENSION DUE TO AUTONOMIC NEUROPATHY
mpge

Total Posts: 35



Posted: Thu Nov 08, 2007 07:34 am

so finally all 200 questions r here. we should not discuss them and clear our doubts so that we get the correct answers ( so that we don't make mistake in aipgme 0Cool

thank u to all the doctors for contributing and making this list complete Very Happy
mpge

Total Posts: 35



Posted: Thu Nov 08, 2007 07:34 am

so finally all 200 questions r here. we should now discuss them and clear our doubts so that we get the correct answers ( so that we don't make mistake in aipgme 0Cool

thank u to all the doctors for contributing and making this list complete Very Happy
sanju5

Total Posts: 138



Posted: Sat Nov 10, 2007 12:28 am

Great Job Friends Very Happy
dubspg

Total Posts: 44



Posted: Sat Nov 10, 2007 04:46 pm

i think we have missed some Q. i'm getting a total of 193. i have posted them subjectwise in a new topic. check them and fill in the voids Smile
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