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Total Posts: 11 | Posted: Wed Jan 24, 2007 07:49 pm RECALLED QUESTIONS OF AIPGMEE 2007 WITH REFRENCES Anatomy 1.Supination and pronation are done at all joints except a. Superior radioulnar joint b. Inferior radioulnar c. Middle radioulnar joints d. Radio carpal joint (d)bdc3e/vol2 127 2. Typical cervical vertebra can be differentiated from thoracic vertebra by a. Foramen transversarium b. Triangle vertebral canal c. Heavy vertebral body d. Superior facet on upper surface of body (a)bdc3e/31 3. Morgagni hernia is a. Right anterior b. Left anterior c. Left posterior d. Right posterior (a)bdc3,vol2/270 4. Meralgia paraesthetica involves a. Medial cutaneous nerve b. Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh c. Sciatic N d. Sural N (b) last’s10e/158 5. ALL of the following structures prevent prolapse of uterus except: a. Levator ani b. Uterosacral ligament c. Broad ligament d. Meckenrodts ligament (c) bdc3e,vol2 6. Regarding Posterior cruciate ligament true statement is a. prevents posterior displacement of tibia b. Intra synovial c. Attaches to lateral femoral condyle d. relaxed in full flexion (a)bdc3e 7.sternocleido mastoid tumour all true except : a) always associated with breech b)spontaneous resolution in most cases c)2/3rd have palpable neck mass at birth d)uncorrected cases develop phagiocephaly (a)Schwartz,vol2/1719 8.Which of he following does not pass behind the diaphragm from thorax to abdomen? a. Aorta b. Thoracic ducts c. Azygos vein d. Greater splanchnic nerve (c)bdc3e,vol2/274;snell 6e/107 9.Trigone of bladder, not true : a. Smooth mucosa b. Loosely attached to underlying muscle c. Transitional epithelium lines it d. It is a remant of mesonephric duct opening into post urogenital sinus (b) 10.claw hand a.Ulnar nerve palsy b.radial nerve palsy (a) [11.which part of vertebral canal will show concavity backwards in secondary curves a cervical b thoracic c sacral d coccyx (a)?/ 12.not a br of cavernous segment of internal carotid artery- a.meningeal branch b.ophthalmic artery c. hypophyseal branch (b)snell6e/723 13.which of this bears the maximum force generated during mastication a pterygomaillary b nasomaxillary c zygomaxillary d ??? 14.primordial germ cells arise from a.endoderm b.ectoderm c.mesoderm (c)? 15. posterior communicating artery a branch of a. internal carotid b. external carotid c.middle cerebral (a) snell6e/705 16.The anatomical structure passing from left to right A/E a.Lt branchiocephalic vein b.hemiAzygous vein c.Lt gonadal vein d.Lt renal vein (c)snell6e/107-9;153 Physiology 17.Heart muscle all true except.. a.acts as syncitium b.has multiple nuclei c.has gap junctions (b) ganong20e/74 18.Papetz circiut in limbic system involves a. anterior thalamic nucleus b.anterior hypothalamic nucleus c.posterior hypothalamic nucleus (a)ganong20e/249 $19.Hormone not secreted by kidney a) renin b) angiotensin 1 c) 1 - 25 diOH cholecalciferol d) erythropoietin (b) ganong20e/439 20. Brocas area is involved in a.word formation b.word interpretation c. (a) 21. When a person acsends ,to obtain max benefit from.... a.decrese work load and increase duration of excercise b.increase workload and decrease duration of excercise c.increase workload and inhaling oxygen ??/ 22.Delta waves found in a.deep sleep b.awake c. (a) aiims may2006 /q no.14 refer AG 23. Enzymes not stable in acidic ph: are all except... a.trypsin , b.chymotrypsin, c.pepsin, d.carboxypeptidase (c)ganong20e/457 24. Site of rbc formation in 20 yr old healthy male a.flat bones b.long bones c.liver (a) 25.The conversion of short term memory to long term memory occurs in a.Frontal cortex b.Hippocampus c.Amygdala ???(b)harrison16e/2394-95 : ganong20e/259 26. Mechanism of cellular memory & learning include all except? a) increase & decrease in neurotransmitter release as in learning & habituation b) increase in no. of synapses, increase in no. of synaptic terminals, increase in no. of dendrites c) recruitment of neurons, involvement of more neurons in a particular function as in somatosensory area of cortex d) allocation of specialized nerve cells occurs in hippocampus (c)ganong20e/261 *27.Regarding GI motility all are true except a.completely independent of stomach influence B.depends on cck c. ??? a please complete the question Biochemistry 28.Dinitrophenol causes a. uncoupler of etc and oxidative phosphorylation 25eharper/142 29.For protein purification and analysis all r used except.... a) centrifugation b) densitometry c) electrophoresis d) chromatography (b)harper25e/58 30.Proteoglycans all are true except a contain amino sugars b helps in maintaining the structure of tissues c contains small amount of water d chondroitin sulphate is an example (c)harper25e/701 31.All r true for m-rna except a capping helps in attachment of m-rna to 40s ribosome b in eukayocytes is regulated by gtp to gdp transformation c the first aa is methionine… d synthesized from dna 3’ -5' (c)harper25e/436,448,459 $32.Northen blot done for? a.RNA b.dna c.protein (a)harper25e/494 33.HMP shunt occurs in a.cytosol b.mitochondria c.endplasmic reticulum (a)harper25e/219 34.LAC OPERON..---............ a.negative regulation b.positive regulation (a)harper25e/472 35.The agranular Endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes A. Proteins B. Lipids C. Vitamins D. Carbohydrates (b) harper25e/177;lippincot2e/226 36.HMP shunt oxidative phase generates a.ribose b.nadph c. (b)harper25e/221 *37.All the following act on the nucleus via transcription factors a.insulin b.retinoid c.vit d d. (a)harper25e/535 *38.When urine is heated to 45’c a precipitate is formed…when further heated to 80’c the precipitate starts re-dissolving…the ppt re-forms on cooling….. a.albumin b.bence-jones protein c. (b) vasudevan3e/439 *39. Regarding triacylglycerol metabolism in adipocytes all are true except a.storage form of lipids in body b. glycerol kinase c.metabolised by lipoprotein lipase (b)harper25e/210;163 *40.Degenaration of basement membrane... a. oxidase b.metalloproteinase ??? b 41. Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in a. Vitreous humour b. Cornea c. Blood vessels (a)harper27e/554 Pharmacology 42. filgrastim used in treatment of: a)malaria b)filarial c)Neutropenia d) (c) Filgrastim is a man-made protein that is similar to the naturally occurring protein, granulocyte-colony stimulating factor (G-CSF). G-CSF is produced in the body by the immune system and stimulates the formation of one type of white blood cell, the neutrophil. 43.leukotrine receptor inhibitor is: a)Zafirlukast b)zilueton (a)harrison’s16e/1514 44.leukotrine inhibitor a)montelukast b)zilueton (a) harrison’s16e/1514 45. Nesiritide is a a)Brain natriuretic peptide Muddit k. aipgmee05/Q.no.105 46.Nevirapine is a)nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor b)non - nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor c)protease inhibitor d)nucleotide inhibitor (b)harrison’s16e/1128 47. For methicillin resistant Staphylococcus aureus which of the following is not useful a. Ciprofloxacin b. Vancomycin c. Cefaclor d. Cotrimoxozole (c)CMDT06/1552 48. Finasteride a.5alpha reductase inhibitor b.androgen receptor antagonist c.alpha antagonist (a)harrison16e/443 49. Not an alkylating agent a) cyclophosphamide b) 5FU c) busulfan d. cyclosporine (b)harrisons16e/470 50.Patient on aspirin will have a.increased pt b.increased aptt c.increase BT d.increased trombin time (c) 51. all are true for immuno suppressants except a.tacrolimus inhibits calieurn pathway b.steroids inhibit?? c. mycophenolate acts by inhibiting gaunosine monophosphate dehydrogenase d..?? (c)harrison’s16e/1670-71(t263-2) 52.which of the following is not an antiepileptic a.phenobarbitone. b.carbamazepine c.phenytoin d.Flunarizine (d) harrison’s16e/2367 53.which of the following antiepileptic does not acts through NA+ Channel a.phenytoin. b.vaproic acid. c.vigabatrin d.lamotrigine (c) harrison’s16e/2363;KDT 4e/390 54.short and rapidly acting insulin....A/E a) lispro b) aspart c) glargine d) glulisine (c)glargine is a long acting insulin; glulisine is a rapid ,short acting insulin analog 55.orange red colored urine seen with a.INH B.rifampicin c.pyrazinamide d.ethambutol (b) harrison’s16e/947 56.all are nonselective beta blockers without any additional action except a.carvedilol b.betaxolol c.carteolol d.labetalol ??(b) it’s a B1 selective blocker ; cartiolol is a B-blocker with intrinsic sympathomimmetic activity KDT4e/96 57 .Which antiepileptic is not contraindicated in pregnancy a.Phenobarbitone b.Phenytoin c.Carbamazipine d.Valproic acid (a)KDT4E/383 pheno is the least toxic of antiepileptics *58.which is not a prodrug. a.levodopa b.captopril c.dipivefrine d.enalapril (b)kdt5e/20 59.prostaglandin that helps in protecting gi mucosa a.pgF2 B.pgE1 C.pgD2 (b)KDT5E/164; MK aipgmee06 q.no.73 60.max peripheral neuropathy a.zidovudine b.stavudine c.lamivudine d.diadanosine ? ? (d) harrison’s16/e 1128; 61. drug used in obesity except a.sibutramine b.orlistat c.olestra d.neuropeptide y analogue (d) harrison’s16/e 429 62. the side effect of heparin is all except... a.thrombocytopenia b.alopecia c.hypokalemia d.hypersensitivity (c) harrison’s16/e 261 t41-4 63. The following is not a gpIIb/IIIa inhibitor a.dipyradamole b.abciximab c.eptifibatide d.tirofiban (A) harrison’s16/e 688;KDT4e/535 64.SIADH is a side effect of a.5FU b.vincristine c.bleomycin d.gemcitabine (b) harrison’s16/e 477 65.which is associated with DIC a.vincristine b.gemcitabine c.L-sparginase d.busulphan (c) harrison’s16/e 473 66.methotrexate is used in rx of a.rhabdomyosarcoma b.osteosarcoma c.multiple myeloma (b) harrison’s16/e 561 67. All are true about clonidine except.. a) stimulates parasympathetic outflow b) causes dry mouth c) prazocin antagonizes its action d.alpha adrenergic agonist (a) KDT 4e/546 ch 36 68.ANTI-PSEUDOMONAS ANTIBIOTIC a.CIPROFLOXACIN b.CEFACLOR c. (A)harrison’s16e/894 Microbiology 69. A patient admitted to an ICU is on central venous line for the last one week; He is on ceftazidime and Amikacin. After 7 days of antibiotics he develops a spike of fever and his blood culture is positive for gram positive cocci in chains, which are catalase –ve. Following this, vancomycin was restarted but the culture remained positive for the same organism even after 2 weeks of therapy. The most likely organism causing infection is [/size] a. Staph aureus b. Viridans streptococci c. Enterococus fecalis d. Coagulase positive staphylococcus (c) harrison’s16/e 815,830 ;ananth 6e/189 70. With reference to Bacteroides fragilis, the following statements are true, except: a. B. fragilis is the most frequent anaerobic isolated from clinical samples b. B. fragilis is not uniformly sensitive to Metronidazole c. The lipopolysaccharide formed by B fragilis is structurally and functionally different from conventional endotoxin d. Shock and disseminated intravascular coagulation are common in Bacteroides bacteremia (d) harrison’s16/e 945 ;ananth7e/ 71.Brucella is transmitted by all the following means except: a)through placenta of animals b)Man to man transmission c)aerosol d)eating uncooked food (b)park18e/231 72. An abattoir worker developed pustule which later turned into a necrotic ulcer .which of the following stain is useful for demonstration of organism from smear made from pustule a. Polychromic methylene blue b. Cakofluor white c. Geimsa d. carbol fuschin (a)ananth6e/224 73. True statement is a. Solid media are enrichment media b. Nutrient Broth is basal media c. Agar adds nutrient to media d. Chocolate agar is selective medium (b ) ananth6e/33 * 74. A neonate presented with vesicular lesions, mother has same history, which investigation is most useful a. VDRL 75. A patient with UTI On smear, no bacteria are found on gram slain with abundant pus cells, to demonstrate organism, which of the following is useful a. McCoy cell line b.thayer martin medium c.L.Jmedium d. (a)ANANTH6e/394 76. Which of the following is not true regarding Chlamydia a. Has biphasic life b. Elementary body is metabolically active c. Reticulate body undergoes binary fission d. Once it invades into cell it abates phagolysosomal fusion (b) ananth 6e/389 77. A 70 year old patient presents with high grade fever dry cough, pain abdomen Sample collected from patient, organisms grow only on charcoal yeast extract medium the likely organism is a.H.Influenza b. Leigonella c.moraxella catarrahalis (b)ananth 6e/378 78.A person from village is complaining of development of pustules, Extract from pus has shown gram positive cocci, showing hemolysis, catalase –ve, identified as a group A streptococci, following test is used a. Bacitracin sensitivity b. Novobiocin sensitivity c. Optochin sensitivity d. Bile solubility (a)aashish gupta aims may2006 /Qno.64 *79. All are true regarding Chlamydia psittaci except a.transmitted by parrots b.cause pneumonitis c.causes inclusion conjunctivitis d.tetracycline is trx of choice (c) harrison’s16/e 1018 80. Burrowing ulcer caused by : a.microaerophlic streptococcus b.streptococus viridans c.strept. pyogenes d.peptostreptococci (a) harrison’s16/e 937 81.Which of this not true about vibrio cholera a nonhalophilic b.can be grown in ordinary media c.can survive outside the body (b) harrison’s16/e 909,911 82. True regarding rabies a.negri bodies b.only motor involvement c.positive strand rna virus (a) harrison’s16/e 1157 83. Which of the following bacterial act by increasing c-AMP, A. Vibrio cholera B. Staphyloccus aereus C. E.coli, heat stable toxin D. Salmonella (a)harrison’s16e/753 *84.BCYE is used A. Legionella B. Streptococcus (a) ananth 6e/378 im not sure whether this ques was there in the paper or not 85.which of this is not true about vibrio O139 a can cause disease in distinguishable from vibrio 01 b [color=red]was first isolated in chennai [/color] c has O-antigen polysacharide capsule d? (b)harrison’s16e/910 from the available options (b) seems to be better option, a &c r definitely true 86. Pancytopenia with bone marrow cellularity is seen in A. G6PD deficiency B. aplastic anemia C. PNH D. Megaloblastic anemia (c) harrison’s16e/617 87. immediate response to tissue injury a.neutropenia b.NEUTROPHILIA c.monocytosis (b) ROBBINS 7E/53 88.Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by a.IgG B.IgM c.IgD D.IgE (d) ROBBINS 7E /206 89. Arthus reaction is a. antibody mediated b.systemic immune complex deposition disease c.localised immune complex deposition disease d.delayed hypersensitivity reaction (c) ROBBINS 7E/215 *90.A person with previously normal hb with sudden hemmorhage will have all except a.reticulocytosis b.High pcv c.low mcv ?? d.thrombocytosis (a)..??(c) harrison’s16e/1602 reti count starts increasing only after a day or two ,b&cdare definetly true 91. Hereditary spherocytosis is due to deficiency of all except a. ankyrin b. spectrin c. anion exchanger d. glycophorin 2 (d)robbins 7e/625;harper 25e/770 ; anion exchanger is BAND 3 protein …refer harper 92.which of this is a immunohistochemical marker for pagets disease of the breast ? a s100 b hmb 45 c synAPTOPHYSIN d CEA (d)harrison’s16e/439 t66-5 a&c r for melanomas 93.which of this does not handle the free radicals in lens a vit a b vit c c vit e d catalase 94.Which of the following is useful in identifying the final common complement pathway a.C4 b.C3 b c.C5 d.Protein B (c) robbins7e/66; harrison’s16e/1913-16 , C3b is also formed in alternate pathway 95. blackening of urine occurs in a. alkaptonuria b. phenylketonuria c.maple syrup urine disease d.isovaleric aciduria (a) robbins7e 96.viral cells specifically killed by a. cytotoxic t cells b.neutrohils c.complement d.natural killer cells (d)robbins7e/201 97.the following r associated with AML except: a.turner's syndrome b.down's syndrome c.patau d.klienfelter syndrome (a) harrison’s16e/631 98.good prognostic factors in childhood leukemia are all except a.Common ALL subtype b.Pre B – ALL c.Hyperploidy d.female gender ?(D) robbins7e/673 ; 99.All are autosomal dominant except a.Fabrys b.huntington disease c.adult polycystic kidney disease d.neurofibromatosis (a)robbins7e/151;harper25e/267 chapter26 100. c ANCA is associated with a.proteinase 3 b.myeloperoxidase c. (a)harrison’s16/2002 101.Fe def anaemia is a/s with A. Increased TIBC, decreased Ferritin B. Decreased TIBC,decreased Ferritin C. [color=red]normal TIBC,decreased ferritn[/color] d.normal TIBC , increased feritin (a) harrisson’s 16e/589 102.AIHA mostly associated with a.bcell lymhomas b.tcell lymphomas c.histiocytosis d.myeloid disorders (a) bcell lymhomas robbins7e/674 CLL is a PERIPHERAL B-CELL NEOPLASM , also reffered to as small lymphoctic lymphoma SPM 103. Lice are not the vectors of a. Relapsing fever b. Q fever c. Trench fever d. Epidemic typhus (b)park18e/574 104. Which one of the following method is used for the estimation of chlorine demand of water a. Chlorometer b. Horrocks apparatus c. Berkefield filter d. Double pot method (b) park18e/540 105. You have diagnosed a pt clinically as having SLE and ordered 6 tests out of which 4 tests have come positive and 2 are negative To determine the probability of SLE at this point, you need to know a. Prior probability of SLE, sensitivity and specificity of each test b. Incidence of SLE and predictive value of each test c. Incidence and prevalence of SLE d. Relative risk of SLE in those patient 106.Case finding in RNTCP is based on a. Sputum culture b. Sputum microscopy c. X-ray chest d. Mantoux test / PCR (b) park18e/335 107. On SAFE strategy false is a. Screening b. Antibiotics c. Facial hygiene d. Environmental (a) 108. Impact and efficiency of iodine Program impact can be assessed by a.goitre in pregnant women b. Neonatal thyroxin levels c.urinary iodine (b) park18e/467 109.PQLI includes all except a. Infant mortality rate b. Life expectancy at 1 year of age c. Literacy rate d. per capita Income (d) park18e/16 110. Direct standardization is used to compare the mortality rates between tow countries. This is done because of the differences in: a. Causes of death b. Numerators. c. Age distributions. d. Denominators. (c) park18e/53 111.True regarding BCG vaccine is a.Danish 1331 strain b.distilled water used as dilutent c.spirit used for cleaning the skin (a)park16e/147 ch.5 112. Universal immunization programme doesn’t include a) TT b) MMR c) DT (b) park16e/[snip] CH. 3 113. Burtonian line is seen in a.lead b.mercury c.phosphorus d.zinc (a 114. Results of a test were given as very Satisfied, Satisfied , dissatisfied & very dissatisfied. it represents a.nominal b.Ordinal data c.interval d.ratio (b)refe rMK/AG 115.All can be incinerated except a.human anatomical waste b.biotechnology waste c.solid waste d.cytotoxic drugs (d) park18e/596-99 116.HERD IMMUNITY ALL ARE TRUE EXCEPT a. depends on clinical & sub clinical cases b.influenced by immunization c.depends on presence of alternate host d.herd immunity is constant (d) park16e/89 ch3 117.chronic carriers are seen in all except a.measles b.typhoid c.hepatitisB d.gonorrhoea (a) park18e/125 118. breast milk differs from cows milk in that it has a.more lactose b.more proteins c.more d.more iron (b) park18e/398 119. smoking is associated with 85% more risk of developing carcinoma .it denotes a. relative risk b.absolute risk c.Attributable risk d.odds ratio (c) park16e/67 ch.3 120.Whichof the following statements about lepromin test is not true a.it is negative in most of the children in first 6 months of life b.it is a diagnostic test c.helps classify leprosy d.BCG vaccination converts lepra reaction from negative to positive (b) park18e/258 AIIMS may 2006/qno.31 121.what is analytical test you use for the study in which u compare qualitative data………… a) student-t b) chi square test c) paired-t test d.bland & altman analysis (b) 122.most effective strategy under eradication of congenital rubella syndrome is to immunize a.all adolescents b.all pregnant women in 2nd trimester c.all nonpregnant girls in reproductive age group ?(c) 123.True about endemic typhus is a.man is the only reservoir b.flea is a vector c.rash develops into an eschar d.culture is a diagnostic modality (b) park18e/240 ; AIIMS may 2006/qno.33 124.The highest percentages of poly unsaturated fatty acids are present in ? A. Ground nut oil B. Palm oil C. Margarine D. Soyabean oil (d) park18e/440 ;AIIMS may 2006/qno.40 125.true about cluster sampling is a. sample size same as simple random sampling b.rapid method of sampling 126. Acrodynia is seen in:b. Mercury poisoning c. Arsenic poisoning d. Carbolic acid poisoning (b)harrison’s16e/2579 (c/c Hg poisoning) 127.which is not an aryl phosphate ? a.parathion b.malathion c.tik20 d.follidol (b)reddy18e/421 (malathion is an alkyl phosphate) 128.A patient presenting with h/o abdominal pain, constipation o/e has blue line on gums .treatment of choice a.CaEDTA b.BAL c.desferroxamine d.penicillamine (a)harrison’s16e/2578;KDT4E/874;reddy18e/441 But all these give CaEDTA as DOC for a/c Pb poisoning, kdt mentions penicillamine as adjuvant rx for c/c poisoning 129.Merucury posioning affects a.proximal convoluted tubule b.distal convoluted tubule c.collecting ducts d.Loop of henle (a) https://pharmrev.aspetjournals.org/cgi/content/abstract/52/1/113 Mercury is unique among the heavy metals in that it can exist in several physical and chemical forms, including elemental mercury, which is a liquid at room temperature. All forms of mercury have toxic effects in a number of organs, especially in the kidneys. Within the kidney, the pars recta of the proximal tubule is the most vulnerable segment of the nephron to the toxic effects of mercury. The biological and toxicological activity of mercurous and mercuric ions in the kidney can be defined largely by the molecular interactions that occur at critical nucleophilic sites in and around target cells. Because of the high bonding affinity between mercury and sulfur, there is particular interest in the interactions that occur between mercuric ions and the thiol group(s) of proteins, peptides and amino acids. Molecular interactions with sulfhydryl groups in molecules of albumin, metallothionein, glutathione, and cysteine have been implicated in mechanisms involved in the proximal tubular uptake, accumulation, transport, and toxicity of mercuric ions. 130.Spalding’s sign is seen in a.maceration b.mummification c.saponification d.putrifaction (a) reddy18e/353(infant deaths ch.19) 131.Antidote for mushroom poisoning is a. neostigmine b. physostigmine c. amyl nitrate d. atropine. (d) reddy18e/516(mushrroms contain alkaloid muscarine) *MEDICINE 132.All are true about benedict’s syndrome except a.cause 3rd nerve palsy b.involvement of penetrating branches of basilar artery.. c.involvement of pons.. d. contra lateral hemiplegia (c) harrison’s16e/174 (it is a MIDBRAIN SYNDRME- involves red nucleus ) Benedikt's Syndrome describes an ipsilateral III nerve palsy accompanied by contralateral 'cerebellar' tremor - a slow rhythmic tremor of the contralateral hand and foot, increased by excitement and voluntary movement, absent in sleep. It is a consequence of damage to the red nucleus - the outflow from the opposite cerebellar hemisphere. There may also be contralateral hyperaesthesia. The syndrome may result from occlusion of the penetrating branches of the basilar artery in the midbrain. 133. Leprosy affects all the following except a.Uterus b.ovaries c.eyes d.nerves ??? b ?? a harrison’s16e/969 mentions options c&d , testis is involved, nothing about a&b I could find 134.Eradication H pylori all are used except a. Amoxycilline b. oxytetracycline c. Metronidazole d. bismuth (b) cmdt2006/590 136. A patient with antibodies to DNA suffering from manifestations of kidney , liver, skin .Probable diagnosis a. systemic sclerosis b.SLE c.wegners granulomatosis d.rheumatoid arthritis (b) harrison’s16e/1961 137.Which of the following disease cause decreased VC & decreased TLC a.Sarcoidosis b.Cystic fibrosis c.Bronchial asthma d.bronchiactasis (a) harrison’s16e/2022;1501(Tb 234-2) (except (a) rest all are obstructive lung d’ses) 138.investigation of choice to diagnose amyloidosis a.rectal biopsy b. C. d. (a)robbins7/e264 I suspect if anyone felt the need to even go through the other options 139. 30 yrs old man presents with generalized edema, haematuria, hypertension & sub nephrotic proteinuria(<2gm).urine examination shows microscopic hematuria. Serum complement levels are decreased .positive for anti hepatitis c antibodies. diagnosis is a.PSGN b.mixed cryoglobulinemia c.lupus nephritis d.MPGN (B) harrison’s16e/1682 *140.Absolute indication for bone marrow biopsy- a.plasmacytosis b.leukemia c.megaloblstic anemia d.gaucher’s disease e.aplastic anemia e>b>d (not sure about the options in original paper 141. 30 year old women has Mitral regurgitation and AF comes in with syncope and regular pulse of 55 /min .most probable cause a.digoxin toxicity b.Cerbral infarct c. d. (a) harrison’s15e/1295 ;MK 2004 Q.NO.86 142.Polycythmeia caused by all except a.cerebellar hemangioblastoma b.hypernephroma c.pancreatic carcinoma d.hepatoma (b) harrison’s16e/627 (tb95-1) *143. True Regarding S4 is a.can be heard by unaided ear b.more then 20 hz c.due to ventricular filling d.due to ventricular ejection (c) harrison’s16e/1308 144. which of this muscles is/are involved in osteoarthritis knee a quadriceps only b hamstrings only c a+b d gastronemius (a)maheshwari3e/253(ch35) 145. Bernard soulier syndrome is associated with all except- a.increased platelet size b.reduced platelet count c.ristocetin is normal d.ADP is normal (c) harrison’s16e/677-78 146.All are seen in raised ICP except a.6th nerve palsy b.papilloedema c.blurring of vision d.headache e.hemiplegia ??? (e) except (e)rest all are 147. All are markers for osteoblastic activity except a.alkaline phosphatase b.osteocalcin c.bone scan d. ?hydroxyproline (d) harrison’s16e/2240 (first 3 are definitely true) 148.Pt in septicaemic shock which vasopressor is preferred a.Epinephrine b.Nor epinephrine c.Ephedrine d.Phenylephrine (b) harrison’s16e/1605 149.CSF picture in TBM: a. inc. protein, inc. sugar, inc. lymphocytes b. inc. prot, dec. sugar, inc. lymphocytes c. dec. prot, inc. sugar, inc. lymphocytes d. dec. prot, dec. sugar, inc. lymphocytes (b) harrison’s16e/2484 150.botulinum toxin acts on all sites except a.neuromuscular junctions b.peripheral ganglia c.postganglionic nerve endings d.cns (d) harrison’s16e/843 151.All are seen in raised ICP except a.6th nerve palsy b.papilloedema c.blurring of vision d.headache e.hemiplegia ??? (e) except (e)rest all are seen 152. All are markers for osteoblastic activity except a.alkaline phosphatase b.osteocalcin c.bone scan d. ?hydroxypyridine (d) harrison’s16e/2240 (first 3 are definitelytrue) 153.Pt in septicaemic shock which vasopressor is preffered a.Epinephrine b.Nor epinephrine c.Ephedrine d.Phenylephrine (b) harrison’s16e/1605 154.CSF picture in TBM: a. inc. protein, inc. sugar, inc. lymphocytes b. inc. prot, dec. sugar, inc. lymphocytes c. dec. prot, inc. sugar, inc. lymphocytes d. dec. prot, dec. sugar, inc. lymphocytes (b) harrison’s16e/2484 155.botulinum toxin acts on all sites except a.neuromuscular junctions b.peripheral ganglia c.postganglionic nerve endings d.cns (d) harrison’s16e/843 156.Minor criteria for rheumatic fever IS a. rising aso titre b. throat culture c. fever d. (C) harrison’s16e/1978 (TB 302-1) 157.Cardiomyopathy is not seen in a.fredrich ataxia b.duchene dystrophy c.lowe syndrome (c) harrison’s16e/2422 ,2528 ; 158.Drug induced lupus is most frequently associated with a. anti-histone ab b.anti-ro ab c.anti-centromere ab d.anti-mitochondrial ab (a) harrison’s16e/1961 (tb300-1) 159. which is not a feature of pontine stoke a. quadriparesis b. pin point c.palatal palsy d.hyperpyrexia (c) harrison’s16e/2383-84(fig.349-9,10,11) involvement of 9th or 10th cranial nerve nuclei not mentioned 160. Cat eye syndrome is associated with: a. Partial trisomy 22 b. Partial trisomy 21 c. Partial trisomy 18 d. Partial trisomy 13 (a) 161. A 55yrs old male presents with TLC 1,00,000; 80%LYMPHOCYTES ; 20%POLYMORPHS.Diagnosis is a.CLL b.HIV c.TB d. (a)robbins7e/674 162. Patients PT given, control PT GIVEN,.The ISI was given as 1.4 .How will u calculate INR a. patient's observed PT (in seconds) /calculated mean normal PT (in seconds) b.(pts PT/PT control)1.4 c.(pts PT/PT control)1/1.4 d. (b) [edit] International normalized ratio Because of differences between different batches and manufacturers of tissue factor (it is a biologically obtained product), the INR was devised to standardise the results. Each manufacturer gives an ISI (International Sensitivity Index) for any tissue factor they make. The ISI value indicates how the particular batch of tissue factor compares to an internationally standardized sample. The ISI is usually between 1.0 and 1.4. The INR is the ratio of a patient's prothrombin time to a normal (control) sample, raised to the power of the ISI value for the control sample used. 163. Most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults a.Lupus nephrits b.diabetes c.amyloid d.drugs (b) robbins7e/979 (tb 20- 
164 .Basal ganglia calcification is seen in all except a.birth anoxia b.hypoparathyroidism c.wilson d/s ???(a) harrison’s16e/2285 (tb 334-2) ;2314; on page 2285 trauma is mentioned as a cause of dystrophic calcification , psudohypoparathyroidism is mentioned as a cause of metastatic calcification ;on pg.2314 it is mentioned that CT & MRI shows damage in basal ganglia in wilsons 165. Dubin-Johnson syndrome test used is a. transaminase b. Bromosulphathalein test c. Hippurate test d. Gamma glutamyl transferase (b) harrison’s16e/1821 166. Autosomal recessive trait is seen in child in spite of normal parents due to a. Uniparental disomy b. Mosaicism (a) https://www.medgen.ubc.ca/wrobinson/mosaic/upd.htm In 1980 Engel introduced the concept of uniparental disomy (UPD). Uniparental disomy (UPD) arises when an individual inherits two copies of a chromosome pair from one parent and no copy from the other parent. Recall that normally a baby inherits one copy of each chromosome from his/her mother and one copy of each chromosome from his/ her father. In the rare circumstance of UPD a baby may have two copies of one of his/ her mother’s chromosome and no copies of that chromosome from his/ her father. This is called maternal UPD. Paternal UPD is when a child inherits two copies of a specific chromosome from his/ her father and no copies of that chromosome from his/ her mother. UPD can result in rare recessive disordersAutosomal recessive conditions are single gene disorders in which an individual must inherit two non-working copies of a gene in order to be affected with the condition. Individuals who inherit one non-working copy are called carriers and are not affected with the condition. In the case of isodisomy, two copies of a recessive mutation (non-working copy of the gene) can be inherited from a parent who is a carrier. In 1988, Spence et al reported the first example of UPD in a 16-year-old female with short stature and cystic fibrosis. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive condition. She inherited two copies of the maternal chromosome 7 with a CF mutation from her mother who was a carrier for CF. NOTE: isodisomy is a variant of UPD 167. Ecg manifestations of hypokalemia includes a.tall t waves b.PR prolongation with ST depression c.flattening of p wave d.broad QRS (B) clinical anesthesiology by MORGAN 3e/614(fig 28-5) ; harrison’s16e/1318 168. All of the following are associated with hypophosphatemia except ... a.diabetic ketoacidosis b. a/c renal failure c.hyperalimentation d.? respiratory alkalosis (b) WYLIE 7e/862 (a practice of anesthesia) ; harrison’s16e/2242(tb331-1) ; MORGAN 3e/622 169. in a patient with caridogenic shock and anterior wall infarction. Best treatment of choice a.angiography with angioplasty b.IABP(intra aortic balloon pump) C.dopamine d.streptokinase (b) MORGAN 3e/976 (its a new device now used in critical care & also for mgmt of peri-op MI ESP. IF THE PT. IS HEMODYNAMICALLY UNSTABLE) 170. Millard-gubler syndrome all are true except a.5th n palsy b.6th n palsy c.7h n palsy d.contralateral hemiplegia (a) harrison’s16e/175 171. Regarding brown-sequard syndrome which is not true a.c/l spinothalamic tract involvement b.ipsilateral loss of motor power c.c/l post column involvement (c) harrison’s16e/144 172. All the following are s/e of beta agonists except a.tachycardia b.tremor c.hyperkalemia d.hyperglycemia (c)KDT4E/330 (CH.21) (they cause hypokalemia) 173. Drug not used in erectile dysfunction a.phenylepherine b.testosterone c.alprostadil (a) harrison’s16e/274 174.Which of the following Investigations is least useful in multiple myeloma a. Bone scan b. Xray c. Bone marrow biopsy d. urine proteins (a) harrison’s16e/659there is absence of osteoblastic activity in MM ; SARP tumors/342 *175. which of the following is true for octroetide a. is orally active b. used in secretory diarrhoea c. (b) harrison’s16e/2226 176.Findings in DIC include all except : a.inc fibrinogen, inc. antithrombin III, inc. thrombin-antithrombin complexes b.inc FDP, normal PT, inc antithrombin III c.inc FDP, prolonged PT, inc thrombin-antithrombin complexes d.inc FDP, prolonged PT, reduced platelets (a) harrison’s16e/684 (fibrinogen level always decreased) *177. Not used in controlling heart rate a.encanaide b.procainamide c.verapamil d.??? 178.old man with type 2 DM presnts with c/o dribbling of urine, urge incontinence, incomplete voiding etc.. most probable cause a.BPH b.neurogenic bladder c. d. (b) harrison’s16e/2166 179.A child of 6 year old with IQ 50 most likely do which of the following a. Read sentence b. Identify colour c. Rides bicycle d. Draws a triangle (b) 180..A neonate presents with congestive heart failure, on examination enlarging fontanellae, bruit on auscultation, on USG shows midline hypoechoeic lesion, most likely diagnosis a. Medulloblastoma b. Arachnoid cyst c. Vein of galen malformation d. (c) cloherty, manual of neonatal care 5e/411 181.Commonest childhood malignancy is a.Leukemia b.Lymphoma c.Neuroblastome d.Wilms tumor (a) Im sure no one has doubts regarding this still ROBBINS7e/499 182. Meningitis in 1yr old is caused by a.listeria b.E.coli C.H.INFLUENZA d.streptococcus pneumoniae (d)Robbins 7e/1369; harrison’s16e/829 ;2471,2472 (the incidence of h.influenza as declined dramatically in recent years) 183 moro’s reflex disappears by a. 3 months b. 5 months C. 7 months (a) 3 months Ghai5e/125 184. Reflex not present at birth a. asymmetric neck reflex b. tonic neck reflex c. rooting reflex d. crossed extensor reflex (a)ghai 5e/125 185. Least common complication of measles a.SSPE b.Diarhhea c. pneumonia d.otitis media (a) harrison’s16e/1149-50 186.Earliest milestone to be achieved is a.creeping b.crawling c.pincer grip d.mirror play (d) ghai 5e/32 ; creeping/ crawling- 11m ; pincer grip-9m ; mirror play-6m 187. 1yr old child with bronchial asthma. Treatment OF choice A. Inhaled B2 agonist B. Oral Ketotifen C. Oral LT2 receptor antagonist D. Theophyllin Now this one is a bit confusing….. If it’s a/c asthma then the answer is INHALED B2 AGONISTS (admn. via face masks) If its long term management then rx of choice is oral ketotifen ……quite obviously 1yrold infant cant use inhalers ! 188. Dexamethasone given to preterm child to reduce the risk of a.hyaline memb ds (a) it’s a straight one *189. Child with URTI presents with stridor which decreases on lying down position a. Ac epiglottitis b. Croup c. laryngotracheobronchitis d.retropharyngeal abcess Ref. ghai5e/338 B&c are essentially the same … there is no positional variation,develops over several days ; (a) develops rapidly over few hours ,improves on sitting up & leaning forwards ….. ;(c) has no relationship to position ;laryngomalacia has no relationship with URTI & presents immediately after birth… 190. Best indicator of long term nutritional status of child a. Body weight b. Mid arm circumference c. Weights for height (c) ghai 6e/5 191.All the following are measures carried out for eradication of neonatal tetanus a. maternal TT immunization b.5 cleans practice c.administring immunoglobulin to neonate d.admn. penicillin to all newborns (d) 192. Seizure & jitteriness can be differentiated on all except: a.Gaze b.Autonomic Disturbance c.Sensitivity to stimulus d.frequency of seizures (d) 193.True regarding Kawasaki disease A/E a.presence of fever b.associated with rash c.associated with purulent conjunctivitis d.inflammed oral mucosa (c)harrison’s16e/ 2012 (its nonsuppurative) SURGERY 194. A patient presented with weakness in lower limb, bladder and bowel involvement, on MRI intradural midline enhancing lesion was found, likely diagnosis a. Meningioma b.intradural lipoma c.dermoid cyst (a) HARRISON’S16e/2456 195.A patient presented with RTA with fracture pelvis, few drops of blood passed per urethra ,not passed urine, palpable bladder, likely cause is a. Ureteral injury b. Urethral injury c. Bladder rupture d. Urine extravasation to peritoneum (b) B&L24e/1389 196.In order to expose the celiac axis, left renal vein, superior mesenteric artery & abdominal aorta in a case of trauma which is done a. Left medial viscera rotation b. Rt medial visceral rotation c. Cranial visceral rotation d. Caudal visceral rotation (b) SABISTON 17e/1973 ; B&L 24e/947 197. Which is not premalignant a.puetz-jegur syndrome b.Juvenile polyp c.FAP d.gardner syndrome (b) HARRISON’S16e/ 528 (tb 77-5) ;ROBBINS7e/859,862 198.A 40 year old male smoker with c/o painless gross henaturia since 2 days. Which of the following is most diagnostic investigation of choice? a. X-ray KUB b. USG KUB c. Routine and microscopy of urine d. Urine for malignant cells (d) B&L 24e/ 1463 199.Which of the following is the most important prognostic indicator in head injury a. Age b. Glasgow Coma scale c. Bleeding on CT d. (b) HARRISON’S16e/2450 200. Patient presents with loss of consciousness CT shows multiple spotty hemorrhages and full basal cisterns. a. Brain contusions b. Diffuse axonal injury c. Subdural Hematoma d. multiple infarcts (b) HARRISON’S16e/2448 201. A 50 yr old man with h/o ca prostate wants to do screening . the most sensitive test is a.Digital rectal examination b.PSA c.Bith a + b d.Endorectal coil MRI with T1 T2 weighted images (c) 202. Which of the following related to gastric injury is untrue a.Mostly related to penetrating trauma b.Treatment is simple debridement and suturing c.Blood in stomach is always related to injury d.Heals well and fast (c) No ref. but option (c) is definitely wrong …as blood in stomach can be swallowed blood also…...from upper GIT or oropharynx or even from respiratory tract 203. Porto systemic shunt is not seen in a.liver b.spleen c.anorectum d.gastro esophageal junction (b) SNELL’S CLINICAL Anatomy 6e/220 204..In Men1 most common is a.insulinoma b.gastrinoma c.glucagonoma d. (b) HARRISON’S16e/2232-31 205.In a case of blunt injury abdomen, the incision for emergency laparotomy should be a.paramedian incision b.midline incision c.transverse upper abdominal incision d.subcoastal incision (b)FARQUHARSON’S TEXTBOOK OF OPERATIVE GENERAL SURGERY 9e/240-41 206. Regarding gynaecomastia false statement is a. may regress spontaneously b.may regress after discontinuing the offending drug c. subcutaneous mastectomy is indicated d. associated with liver failure (C) SABISTON 17/e 874 ; 207.In a case of injury to male urethra below the perineal membrane urine drains into a.deep perineal pouch b.superficial perineal pouch c. (b) SNELL 6e/365 (inferior layer of urogenital diaph. Is aka perineal membrane) SABISTON 17/e2296 (clsfn. Of urethral injuries – a. posterior urethra :above the urogenital diaph. ;b.anterior urethra : below the urogenital diaph.e.g. bulbar urethra ) SNELL 6e/382 ( the common site of rupture is within the bulb of penis ,just below the perineal membrane & the urine extravasates into superficial perineal pouch ) 208.True about pilonidal sinus is a.common in females b.congenital c.toc excision d.hairfollicles can be demonstrated in the sinus wall (c) B&L 23e/1122 *209. In pelvic fractures the most likely structure to get injured a.urethra b. urinary bladder c. ureter d. (a) B&L 23e/1259 210.45 Yrs old male presents with 90/60 BP,PR-110 per min & history of vomiting, a volume of 500ml of blood 24hrs back ; Splenomegaly 5cm below lower costal margin. Most probable diagnosis. A. Duodenal ulcer B. Portal hypertension C. Gastric ulcer D. Erosive gastritis (b) Splenomegaly 5cm clinches the diagnosis 211.Which is not a thyroid cancer a.insular b.merkel cell c.follicular d.anaplastic (B) HARRISON’S16e/498 ( merkel cell is a non-melanoma cutaneous malignancy;) Insular thyroid carcinoma is a type of thyroid cancer that falls somewhere between the extremes of well- differentiated thyroid cancers, which are slow growing and almost always curable, and poorly differentiated (including Ana plastic) thyroid cancer, which are rapidly progressive and seldom effectively treated 212. TOC in zollinger-ellison syndrome is a.proton pump inhibitors b.H2 blockers c.gastrectomy d.octreotide (a) HARRISON’S16e/1759 OBG 213. Perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B is maximum when infection in mother occurs: a. at implantation b. 1st trimester c. 2nd trimester d. 3rd trimester (d) Harrison’s16e/1830 214.Hypothyroidism in pregnancy is not associated with: a. Preterm labour b. Prematurity c. PIH d. Hydramnios (d) WILLIAMS 22e/1195 215. Commanest cause of post menopausal bleed a.ca endometrium b.ca cervix c.ca vulva (b) shaw12e/294;286 (vaginal bleeding in post –menopausal age should always be suspected as being caused by ca cervix or uterus…… ca cervix accounts for 80% , ovary 10% & uterine body 4-5% of genital cancers in india ) These r the exact statements from shaw's…… I think it makes the answer clear 216.A child has TGA .The mother should b investigated for a.heart disease b.hypertension c.Gestational diabetes mellitus (c) WILLIAMS22e/1369 217. Fetus with increased nuchal translucency at 14 weeks .seen in a.Down syndrome b.Esophageal atresia c.turner syndrome (a)WILLIAMS21e/[snip] 218.The shape of nulliparous cervix a.Circular b.Longitudinal c.Tranverse d.Fimbriated (a) 219.The shape of cervical canal leading to premature delivery a.Tshaped b.Yshaped c.Ushaped d.Oshaped (c) no ref. but the ANSWER IS CONFIRMED 220. Fibroid causes all except a.Menstrual irregularities b.Infertility c.Abdominal mass d.Amenorrhoea (d) SHAW12e/280 221. Maximum increase in cardiac output during pregnancy is seen in a.32 weeks b.36 weeks c.during labour d. (c) DUTTA 5e/53 222. Mc ovarian ca to undergo torsion a.serous cystadenoma b.mucinous cystadenoma c.brenner d. benign cystic teratoma (b) SHAW12e/326 223. Anti hormone used in infertility a) clomiphene citrate b) tamoxifen (a) SHAW12e/242 224.HPV associated with invasive ca cervix a. hpv 16 b.hpv 18 c.hpv32 d.hpv36 a>b in that order as given in Harrison’s16e/1056 225. In bishops score all are included except a.effacement of cervix b.dilatation of cervix c.station of head d.interspinal diameter (d) DUTTA 5e/560 226.External cephalic version is CI in a.anemia b.flexed breech c.PIH (C) DUTTA 5e/406 227.sperm aspiration technique a.TESA b.MESA (B) 228. Blood flow waveform in uterine arteries during contraction which predict IUGR a. diastolic notch b. diastolic flow reversal c. low diastolic flow d. low systolic flow (C) DUTTA 5e/116 (REVERSAL occurs in severe advanced cases of IUGR) 229. Sterilization commonly performed at which site of fallopian tube a.ampulla b.infundibullum c.isthmus d.cornua (c) DUTTA 5e/592(ch.35) 230. OCPs are useful in all except a.Ca endometrium b.Ca breast c. Endometriosis (b) SHAW12e/308 ; Harrison’s16e/2273 231.Which IUCD last for 10 years a.NovaT b.Cu T 380 A c.multiload Cu250 (b) SHAW12e/174 232. An ovarian cyst identified in the immediate post-partum period. time of surgery a.2 weeks b.6 weeks c.8 weeks d.immediately (d) DUTTA 5e/329 Ophthalmology 233. A patient presented unilateral progressive proptosis, increased on bending forward and compressible on auscultation, no bruit is heard,usg shows hyper echoic mass with acoustic shadow likely diagnosis a. AV malformation b. Orbital varix c. Neurofibromatosis d. Orbital encephalocele (b) I think this ques though a repeat from nov aims was introduced in aipgmee 07 with a small change… instead of the MRI finding they have provided with USG finding of hyperechoic mass with acoustic shadow …. As far as I know hyperechoic mass with acoustic shadow is suggestive of a mass lesion & not blood…. Please contribute with your opinion 234.autosomal dominant retinal disorder a.gyrate atrophy b.Best’s disease c.LMB Syndrome (b) KANSKI 5e/494 235.Mucopolysaccharide hyaluronic acid is present in a. Vitreous humour b.synovial fluid c.cornea (a)KHURANA 3e/343 ;HARPER 27e/554 236.Lamina cribrosa is not formed in: a. Morning Glory syndrome b. Nanophthalmia c. Colobama of retina d. Optic N. agenesis ?(a) lamina cribrosa, the small cartilaginous section of the sclera at the back of the eye through which the optic nerve passes Lamina Cribrosa: The portion of the sclerae that the optic nerve fibers pass through. In intraocular hypertension, it bows backwards, impinging on the optic nerve fibers and ultimately destroying them. This results in optic nerve atrophy, the ultimate result of prolonged glaucoma. The morning glory syndrome -The aetiology of the disorder remains controversial, although it would appear to be related to an isolated coloboma of the optic nerve. 237.Cherry red spot seen in all except a) neiman pick disease b) krabbe disease c) multiple sulfatase deficiency d) ?type 2 glycogen storage disease ??/(b) Harrison’s16e/2317 (in krabbe’s no ophth. Manifestations) 238. Transport of Ascorbic acid to lens is done by: a.. Myoinositol b. Choline c. Taurine (a) 239. All of the following are responsible for blindness in childhood except A. Dacryoscystitis B. Glaucoma C. Malnutrition D. Ophthalmia neonatorum (a) KHURANA 3e/358 ENT 240. Rhinolalia clausia not seen in a. allergic rhinitis b. palatal palsy c. adenoids ( B) as palatal palsy causes rhinolalia aperta 241. Indicator for csf leak a. beta 2 tranferrin b. beta protein trace c.dye test (a) beta 2 tranferrin estimation is PATHOGNOMIC 242. best inv for temporal bone # a. CT[/color] b. mri c. x_ray (a) HARRISON’S 16e/182 243. Rhinopyma is a.hyperplasia of the sebaceous glands b. hyperplasia of sweat glands (a) HARRISON’S 16e/295 244. First N to get involved in acoustic neuroma a. 5 b. 7 c. 10 d. 9 (a) HARRISON’S 16e/2456 245. Trauma to the temporal bone with injury to VII nerve. which is true? a.Longitudinal # b. Transverse # c. always asso with CSF leak d. The paralysis of VII nerve is always complete ( b) HARRISON’S 16e/2449 246.commonest site for csf rhionorea is a ethmoid sinus b frontal sinus c petrous d sphenoid sinus (a) MC site of trauma in CSF rhino. 1. fovea ethmoidalis(roof) of ethmoid ; 2.cribriform plate 247. Brown sign is seen in a.glomus tumour b. acoustic neuroma c. otosclerosis (a) ORTHOPAEDICS 248.Which of the following tumors involves epiphysis a. Ewings sarcoma b. Osteosarcoma c. Osteoclastoma d. Chondromyxoid fibroma (c) AG/AT -AIIMS NOV 2001 ques.no.150 249. Nerve not involved in entrapment a.femoral b.Median c.ulnar d.lateral cutaneous nerve ?(a) HARRISON’S 16e/2500;2502(tb 363-1) B,c,&d are definetly involved in nerve entrapment. But the table ref. above also mentions femoral nerve . .though it doesn't specifically mention that femoral n. entrap. Is seen. 250.A 7 yr old boy with x-ray features of codman triangle and sunray appearance most probably has a.osteoclastoma b.chondrosarcoma c.osteosarcoma (c) HARRISON’S 16e/561 251. BURST FRACTURE OF THE SPINE IS a.compression fracture b.extension injury c.direct injury (a) MAHESHWARI 3e/149 252. Most common force involved in fracture spine is a flexion b extension c rotation d compression (a) MAHESHWARI 3e/144 253.Bohlers angle measure gives reference for a.calcaneum b.talus c.navicular d.cuboid (a 254. Investigation not required in osteosarcoma. a. MRI femur b. bonemarrow biopsy c. CT chest d. bone scan (b) MAHESHWARI 3e/219 MRI femur- to assess soft tissue & BM invasion CT chest - to assess lung mets bone scan – new bone formation in the matrix of tumor & dist. Mets 255.tube cast applied in # around a) shoulder b) hip c) pelvis d)knee (d) VARIOUS INTERNET SITES…. 256.pulsatile tumour seen in a.ewings b.osteosarcoma c.chondrosarcoma d.osteoclastoma (d) MAHESHWARI 3e/216 ;SARP TUMORS 4e/86 (osteoclastoma is an expansile lesion) Dermatology 257. A 3 yr old child had eczematous dermatitis on extensor surfaces. His other has a history of bronchial asthma. Diagnosis could be A. Atopic dermatitis B. Contact drmititis C. Seborrhic dermatitis D. Infantile eczematous dermatitis (a) HARRISON’S 16e/288 *258. Tuberculide is seen in a.Lupus vulgaris b.scrofuloderma c.lupus scrofulacium (c)??? someone please come up with a reference 259. Treatment of acute neuritis in borderline tuberculoid leprosy a.MDT b.MDT+ steroid c.Steroid d.MDT+thalidomide (b) HARRISON’S 16e/968 … ‘c’ can also be true …but you never treat neuritis alone….(also it is not mentioned anywhere that MDT should be stopped in case of lepra reaction) 260. Pityriasis rosea true is A. Self limiting B. Chronic relapsing C. Life threatening infection D. Caused by dermatophytes (A) HARRISON’S 16e/292 261. Mycosis fungoides which is not true. A. It is the most common from of cutaneous lymphoma B. Pautriers microabcess C. Indolent course and easily amenable to treatment D. Erythroderma seen and spreads to peripheral circulation (C) HARRISON’S 16e/653 ANAESTHESIA 262.For eye surgery a patient was given propofol and scoline.Pt. complained of muscle pain after 2 hrs.This can be due to a.propofol b.scoline c. (b) didn’t even look at the other options….. scoline is classically associated with post-op myalgia…its due to the fasciculations produced by scoline during phase 1 block…. . MILLER’S ANESTHESIA6e/491 263.ICU patient on ventilator, on atracurium infusion, develops seizures after 2 days. MOST PROBABLE CAUSE.. A.hypoxia b. accumulation of laudonosine c. (b) MILLER’S ANESTHESIA 6e/509 264. Caudal block for infant which is C/I... a) remifentanil b) sufentanil c) morphine d) butorphanol ans. NONE OF THE ABOVE is CI….. ALL CAN BE GIVEN….is it a dummy ! 265. Centrineuraxial block (spinal or epidural) Anaesthesia is contraindicated in all except a.Platelates <80,000 b.Pt on asprin c.Pt on anticoagulants d.Pt on iv heparin (a) CNB is CI in all coagulopathies or pts with abnormal coagulation profile…..CNB should be performed with caution in patients with platelets below 1,00,000……… CNB should be avoided in patients with platelet cont below 50,000…. U can take my word on this……… when u have all bad options u go for the lesserevil ! 266. Oxygen toxicity all TRUE except a.causes retinal blindness b.pulmonary edema c. less cerebral flow causes oxygen toxicty d.oxygen will cause convulsions (c) regarding oxygen toxicity : (a) in premature babies it causes retrolental fibropasia (b)changes in capillary endothelium with an inc.in permeability leads to pulmonary edema (d) oxygen at high conc. ,at 3 ATA , causes convulsions due to increased cerebral PO2. (c) increase in PO2 causes decrease in cerebral blood flow ..at 1 atm of oxygen CBF decreases by 15%.. but the cerebral available oxygen remains same 267.which is used to monitor respiration in neonate (not intubated) a) capnography b) impedance pulmunometry c) nasal temperature d) ? (b) miller’s anesthesia 6e/1468 (impedence plethysmography); in a intubated neonate ans would be capnography Psychiatry 268.DOC for OCD a.imipramine b. Fluoxetine c.chlorpromazime d.benzodiazipine (b) HARRISON’S 16e/2552 269.Delusion is a disorder of a.Thought b.perception c.insight d.cognition (a) AHUJA 4e/13 270.A 3 year old child presented with normal developmental milestones except for speech. Child is unable to concentrate, not able to make friends doing his work likely diagnosis is a. Attention deficit disorder b. Autism c. Speech learning disability d. Specific learning disability (b) sure success (psy,sin,anes…) /4 210. True about raynauds disease a.good prognosis b. c. (a) HARRISON’S 16e/1489 137.Metalloproteins are involved in a.Degradation of extracellular proteins 271. Naltrexone is used in opiod addiction to A. To treat withdrawl symptoms B. To treat overdose of opiods C. Prevent relapse D. Has addiction potential (c) HARRISON’S 16e/2569 272.Commonest manifestation of alcohol withdrawal syndrome a.tremors b.diarhhea c.lacrimation (a) HARRISON’S 16e/2565 273. Not included in Diagnosis of bipolar disorder a. Mania alone b. mania and depression c. Depression alone d. mania and anxiety (c) HARRISON’S 16e/2556 274.most common substance abuse in India a.?smoking b.alcohol c.cannabis d? ans (a)……… any references 275.all are true for raynauds d/s except a.mre commen in women b.ass with raynauds phenomenon c.ass with presence of antinuclear antibodies.. d.good prognosis (c)HARRISON’S 16e/1489 RADIODIAGNOSIS 276.Which waves not used for deep tumours? a.infra red b.micro wave c.short wave d.ultra sonic (a) no ref….. the following post from one of the aipgme07 threads…any other opinion welcome Deep heat causes a temperature rise from the conversion of energy into heat as it penetrates the tissues of the body where the energy is applied. Energy sources include (1) high-frequency currents (shortwave diathermy), (2) electromagnetic radiation (microwaves), and (3) ultrasound (high-frequency sound). 277. isotope used in radio isotope scanning? a.I-123???? b.I-125 c.I-127 d.I 131 *278. Radio-contrast is contraindicated in all except a.renal failure b.?patient on metformin c.dehydration d.obesity (d) 279.Oxygenases all are true except- a.incorporates 1 atom of O2 molecule b.incorporates both the atoms of molecular O2 c.required for reactions like hydroxylation d. ???/ (d) HARPER 25e/134 (ch 13) ; first 3 options r true 280. persistent GTT evolves to a.choriocarcinoma b.invasive (a) DUTTA 5e/212 (persistent GTT is considered malignant) 281. What is the diff between sexual maturity boys n girls at puberty a.inc inhibin? b.spurt 282.True Regarding thyroid lymphoma a. thyroid lymphomas are more common in women than in men b. respiratory difficulty cough, and dysphagia also can occur as presenting …………. please complete the ques 283. which of this investigation is helpful in heterophoric calcification a alkaline phosphatase b calcium c acid phosphatase d phosphorus COULD’T UNDERSTAND THE WORD” heterophoric” ! 'HETERTROPHIA " MEANS normal cells in abnormal locations. Do they mean metastatic calcification ?/ in that case the ans. Should be (b) calcium 284.not seen in c/c papilledema 285 .head injury most often results in a.partial facial nerve palsy b.complete facial nerve palsy was this ques in the paper 286.child has started mouthing objects , shows likes/dislikes, and has not developed stranger anxiety... age?? a.3 months b.5 months c. 7 months d.9 months (c) ghai/33 287.hypoxia with relation to glycolysis……. With relation to HMP shunt ? 288.Study of gene expression is called... a> Genomics b> Proteonomics c> ... d> .. (a) HARPER 25/e821 Genomics is the study of an organism's entire genome ….. A major branch of genomics is still concerned with sequencing the genomes of various organisms, although the knowledge of full genomes have created the possibility for the field of functional genomics, mainly concerned with patterns of gene expression during various conditions. 289.A child presenting with fever & cough ....culture showed alpha hemolytic colonies which were bile soluble... test to identify the organism..... a. Bacitracin sensitivity b. Novobiocin sensitivity c. Optochin sensitivity d. Bile solubility 290. FAB L3 refers to a.pre-B ALL b.T cell ALL C.B cell ALL d. mixed ALL (C) HARRISON'S 16 E/642 (tb 97-2) 291.BIOTIN is useful in a.?alpha -keto acid decarboxylase def. b.multiple carboxylase deficiency c. (b) HARPER 25/e635(ch52) 292.serum differs from plasma in all except a.fibrinogen b.Factor viii c.factor vii d.factor v (c) Ganong 20e/522 both F VIII & Fibrinogen were present in the options 293. Test used to confirm H.PYLORI eradication after treatment a.rapid urease test b.urea breath test c.endoscopic biopsy d. (b) HARRISON’S16e/888 294.most common cause of growth delay.... a. constitutional delay b. growth hormone deficiency c. cretinism (a) Children with constitutional growth delay (CGD), the most common cause of short stature and pubertal delay, typically have retarded linear growth within the first 3 years of life. refrence e medicine 295.changes in congestive cardiac failure all/except.... a. increased right atrial pressure b. edema c. decreased serum sodium d. (d) 1st 3 options r true........even though there is Na retention s. Na is normal/reduced due to water retention... ....296.Which of the following antiplatelets is a prodrug a aspirin b dipyridamole c ticlopidine d clopidegrole ???/ b 297.Which of the following acts by hypomethylation a.decitabine b.gemcitabine c.5 FU d. (a) |