(Single Best Answer) Question 181: A 30-year-old woman with three children has dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What will be the most appropriate management ?
A) Abdominal hysterectomy B) Medical management with danazol C) Transcervical endometrial resection D) Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Hyperinsulinaemia B) Hyperandrogenism C) Raised LH, Raised FSH D) Raised LH, Low-to-normal FSH Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 183: A 13-year-old obese, unmarried girl presents with the history of amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. On examination, the secondary sex characters are found to be well developed. What should be the next step ?
A) Carry out the progesterone challenge test B) Assess the TSH and Prolactin levels C) Carry out a per-rectal examination D) Keep her under observation for the next three months Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 184: A woman who has secondary amenorrhea experiences withdrawal bleeding following progesterone administration. What is the likely diagnosis ?
A) Anovulation B) Premature ovarian failure C) Hypothalamic amenorrhea D) Ashermans syndrome Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 185: A woman of child-bearing age develops a second-degree uterine prolapse with supravaginal elongation of the cervix. What will be the most appropriate managment ?
A) Amputation of the cervix B) Fothergills operation C) Vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair D) Sling operation Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Vaginal pH < 4.5 B) Homogenous vaginal discharge C) Presence of clue cells D) Positive whiff test Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Testicular tubular epithelium B) Seminal vesicles C) Leydig cells D) Hypothalamic-pituitary axis Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 188: A woman, who is in the reproductively active age group, presents with a history of greenish and frothy vaginal discharge. On per speculum examination, she has multiple punctate strawberry-like spots. What is the likely diagnosis ?
A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis C) Gonococcal vaginitis D) Chlamydia infection Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 189: A 60-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding per vaginum. Both per vaginum and per speculum examination reveal no abnormality and the Pap smear is normal. What will be the most appropriate management ?
A) Keep her under observation B) Administer haemostatics C) Measure endometrial thickness with ultrasound D) Hysterectomy Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) less than 25 years of age B) who are normotensive C) who have thromboembolic disorders D) who have anaemia Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):