(Single Best Answer) Question 331: A G2 P1 A o presents with full term pregnancy with transverse lie in the first stage of labour. On examination, cervix is 5 cm dilated, membranes are intact and foetal heart sounds are regular. The appropriate management would be ?
A) Wait for spontaneous ovulation and expulsion B) External cephalic version C) Internal podalic version D) Caesarean section Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Vaginal hysterectomy with PFR B) Abdominal cervicopexy C) Fothergill s repair D) Anterior and Posterior colporrhaphy Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Multiple pregnancy B) Pelvic infection C) Established breast feeding D) Retained placental fragments Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 335: Which of the following methods for induction of labour should not be used in the patient with previous lower segment caesarean section ?
A) Vaginal prostaglandin gel B) Oral prostaglandin tablet C) Stripping of the membrane D) Oxytocin drip Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Laceration of the birth canal B) Postpartum haemorrhage C) Facial palsy D) Brachial plexus palsy Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 337: Immediately after third stage of labour in a case of full term delivery, the fundus of the uterus is ?
A) At the level of xiphisternum B) At the level of umbilicus C) Below the level of umbilicus D) Just above the symphysis pubis Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 338: A 20 year old primigravida is admitted with full term pregnancy and labour pains. At 4 A.M. she goes into active phase of labour with 4 cm cervical dilatation. Membranes rupture during p/v examination showing clear liquor. A repeat p/v after 4 hours of good uterine contractions reveals a cervical dilatati on of 5 cm. What should be the next step in management ?
A) Reassess after 4 hours B) Immediate caesarean section C) Oxytocin drip D) Reassess for occipitoposterior position and cephalopelvic disproportion Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 339: A 32 years old woman with two live children was brought to emergency with history of missed period for 15 days, spotting since 7 days and pain abdomen since 6 hours. Her pulse was 120 per minute, pallor + +, systolic B.P. 80 mm Hg. There was fullness and tenderness on per abdomen examination. Copper T thread was seen through external os on per speculum examination. On p/ v examination, cervical movements were tender, uterus was anteverted, bulky and soft. There was fullness in pouch of Douglas. Most likely, she is suffering from ?
A) Pelvic inflammatory disease B) Missed abortion with infection C) Ruptured ectopic pregnancy D) Threatened abortion Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair B) Abdominal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair C) Sling surgery D) Le Forte s repair Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):