A) Uterine artery B) Inferior vesical C) Inferior gluteal D) Superior gluteal Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 44: A 30 years old housewife reports with 6 months amenorrhoea. Her serum LH and FSH are high with low estradiol levels. What is the most likely cause of amenorrhoea in this context ?
A) Pituitary tumour B) Polycystic ovarian disease C) Exercise induced D) Premature menopause Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):