(Single Best Answer) Question 171: A 45-year-old man is hospitalised with acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. He develops sinus bradycardia at 40 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Which of the following should be the first line intervention ?
A) IV atropine B) IV dopamine C) IV isoproterenol D) Temporary pacemaker Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Supraventricular tachycardia B) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy C) Atrial fibrillation D) Congestive cardiac failure Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) High ESR B) Musculoskeletal pain without local tenderness C) Spontaneous resolution of symptoms D) Tiredness and insomnia Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 174: A 36-year-old woman presents with muscle weakness. Her serum K+ value is 2.0 mEq/L. Consider the following as the possible causes:
1. Persistent vomiting
2. Acute intravascular haemolysis
3. Conns syndrome
4. Rhabdomyolysis
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 only B) 1 and 3 only C) 2 and 4 only D) 3 and 4 only Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Facioscapulohumeral : Autosomal recessive B) Limb girdle type : Autosomal dominant C) Dystrophia myotonica : Autosomal dominant D) Duchenne muscular dystrophy : X-linked recessive Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):