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Mcqs MBBS Exams India
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Home >> Exams >> UPSC-CMS >> UPSC CMS 2012 >> UPSC CMS 2012 Paper 1 >> Mcqs Page 6
(Single Best Answer) Question 51: Regarding rheumatoid arthritis, the following statements are true except ?
A) The cricoarytenoid joint may be involved
B) HLA-D4 and HLA-DR4 are positive in patients with seropositivity rheumatoid arthritis
C) Subcutaneous nodules are more frequent in seronegative patients
D) Diffuse intestinal fibrosis and pneumonitis may occur (interstitial fibrosis)
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 52: Quinine is prescribed for the treatment of chloroquine resistant falciparum malaria. The oral dose of quinine is about ?
A) 10 mg / kg per day
B) 20 mg / kg per day
C) 30 mg / kg per day
D) 50 mg / kg per day
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 53: Which of the following medical conditions does not mimic an anxiety disorder state ?
A) Hypothyroidism
B) Pheochromocytoma
C) Hypoglycaemia
D) Alcohol withdrawal
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 54: Each of the following is a hallmark of celiac sprue except ?
A) It is a gluten-sensitive enteropathy
B) It may get complicated by lymphoma
C) It is diagnosed on the basis of a small-intestinal biopsy
D) It may be associated with diabetes insipidus
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 55: Regarding syphilis, the following statements are correct, except ?
A) The disease is caused by Treponema pallidum, a spirochete
B) Cardiovascular syphilis often leads to dissecting aneurysm of the aorta
C) Reginal lymphadenopathy accompanies the primary lesion appearing within one week of the onset
D) Fluorescent treponemal antibody absorption test is a highly specific test for the diagnosis of disease
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 56: The most common cause of preventable blindness in children in India is ?
A) Trachoma
B) Traumatic cataract
C) Vitamin A deficiency
D) Recurrent conjunctivitis
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 57: Consider the following statements regarding mitral stenosis (MS):
1. In isolated MS, the left ventricular diastolic pressure is normal
2. In most patients with moderate MS, the cardiac output is normal or almost so at rest
3. Severe pulmonary hypertension results in tricuspid regurgitation
4. Left ventricular ejection fraction is markedly reduced.
Which of the following statements given above is / are correct ?
A) 1, 2 and 4
B) 1, 2 and 3
C) 3 and 4 only
D) 1, 3 and 4
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 58: A patient presents with shortness of breath. On clinical examination, he is found to have a heaving apex and a systolic murmur that intensifies on Valsalvas manoeuvre. The most likely diagnosis is ?
A) Valvular aortic stenosis
B) Ventricular septal defect
C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D) Atrial septal defect
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 59: Which one of the following treatments is effective in primary biliary cirrhosis ?
A) Prednisolone
B) Interferon alppha - 2 B
C) D-Penicillamine
D) Ursodeoxycholic acid
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 60: The following features are hallmarks of post-primary pulmonary tuberculosis except ?
A) It results from endogenous reactivation of latent infection
B) The disease is usually localized to the anterior segment of the upper lobe
C) If cavity formation occurs, satellite lesions result from the discharge of liquefied contents into the airways
D) Up to one-third of untreated patients die due to severe pulmonary TB within a few weeks or months after onset
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):