(Single Best Answer) Question 51: A 45-year-old man is hospitalised with acute inferior wall myocardial infarction. He develops sinus bradycardia at 40 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg. Which of the following should be the first line intervention ?
A) IV atropine B) IV dopamine C) IV isoproterenol D) Temporary pacemaker Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
A) Facioscapulohumeral : Autosomal recessive B) Limb girdle type : Autosomal dominant C) Dystrophia myotonica : Autosomal dominant D) Duchenne muscular dystrophy : X-linked recessive Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):