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Mcqs MBBS Exams India
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Home >> Exams >> UPSC-CMS >> UPSC CMS 2011 >> UPSC CMS 2011 Paper 2 >> Mcqs Page 5
(Single Best Answer) Question 41: The following are the branches of the anterior division of internal iliac artery except ?
A) Superior rectal artery
B) Middle rectal artery
C) Inferior vesical artery
D) Uterine artery
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 42: A 60-year-old woman presents with postmenopausal bleeding per vaginum. Both per vaginum and per speculum examination reveal no abnormality and the Pap smear is normal. What will be the most appropriate management ?
A) Keep her under observation
B) Administer haemostatics
C) Measure endometrial thickness with ultrasound
D) Hysterectomy
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 43: A woman, who is in the reproductively active age group, presents with a history of greenish and frothy vaginal discharge. On per speculum examination, she has multiple punctate strawberry-like spots. What is the likely diagnosis ?
A) Candidiasis
B) Trichomoniasis
C) Gonococcal vaginitis
D) Chlamydia infection
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 44: The absence of fructose in the seminal fluid indicates a defect of ?
A) Testicular tubular epithelium
B) Seminal vesicles
C) Leydig cells
D) Hypothalamic-pituitary axis
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 45: The diagnostic criteria for bacterial vaginosis include the following except ?
A) Vaginal pH < 4.5
B) Homogenous vaginal discharge
C) Presence of clue cells
D) Positive whiff test
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 46: A woman of child-bearing age develops a second-degree uterine prolapse with supravaginal elongation of the cervix. What will be the most appropriate managment ?
A) Amputation of the cervix
B) Fothergills operation
C) Vaginal hysterectomy and pelvic floor repair
D) Sling operation
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 47: A woman who has secondary amenorrhea experiences withdrawal bleeding following progesterone administration. What is the likely diagnosis ?
A) Anovulation
B) Premature ovarian failure
C) Hypothalamic amenorrhea
D) Ashermans syndrome
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 48: A 13-year-old obese, unmarried girl presents with the history of amenorrhoea and cyclical abdominal pain. On examination, the secondary sex characters are found to be well developed. What should be the next step ?
A) Carry out the progesterone challenge test
B) Assess the TSH and Prolactin levels
C) Carry out a per-rectal examination
D) Keep her under observation for the next three months
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 49: The following hormonal changes mark the Polycystic Ovarian Disease except ?
A) Hyperinsulinaemia
B) Hyperandrogenism
C) Raised LH, Raised FSH
D) Raised LH, Low-to-normal FSH
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 50: A 30-year-old woman with three children has dysfunctional uterine bleeding. What will be the most appropriate management ?
A) Abdominal hysterectomy
B) Medical management with danazol
C) Transcervical endometrial resection
D) Levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):