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Mcqs MBBS Exams India
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Home >> Exams >> UPSC-CMS >> UPSC CMS 2011 >> UPSC CMS 2011 Paper 2 >> Mcqs Page 6
(Single Best Answer) Question 51: Ashermans syndrome typically results from ?
A) Excessive curettage during dilatation and curettage
B) Post partum haemorrhage
C) Prolonged usage of oral contraceptives
D) Use of intrauterine contraceptive device
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 52: A 15-year-old unmarried girl presents with complaints of dysmenorrhoea for the last about one year. She achieved menarche at 12 years of age. On abdominal and rectal examination, she has no abnormality. What will be the most appropriate management ?
A) Prescribe antibiotics
B) Prescribe clotrimazole vaginal ovules
C) Reassure her and prescribe analgesics
D) Perform dilatation and curettage
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 53: A 40-year-old woman presents with excessive menstrual bleeding. The most appropriate first surgical treatment will be ?
A) Hysteroscopy
B) Myomectomy
C) Dilatation and curettage
D) Hysterectomy
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 54: Which of the following haematological parameters does not undergo a physiological increase during normal pregnancy ?
A) Blood volume
B) Red cell volume
C) Leukocyte count
D) Platelet count
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 55: A 37-week small for date neonate is not likely to develop ?
A) Hypocalcaemia
B) Hypoglycaemia
C) Hypothermia
D) Hyaline membrane disease
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 56: The respective hormones responsible for the breast milk secretion and ejection are (in that order) ?
A) Oxytocin and Prolactin
B) Prolactin and Oxytocin
C) Oestrogen and Prolactin
D) Prolactin and Oestrogen
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 57: The most common cause of secondary postpartum haemorrhage is ?
A) Intrauterine infection
B) Subinvolution of uterus
C) Oestrogen therapy administered to inhibit the lactation
D) Retained fragments of placenta or membranes
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 58: A multiparous patient presents with 36 weeks of pregnancy in labour. On examination, the cervix is fully dilated. The foetal heart rate is 170 / min, and the head is at + 2 station. What will be the most appropriate management ?
A) Wait for the normal delivery
B) Apply ventous and deliver
C) Apply forceps and deliver
D) Perform LSCS
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 59: A pregnant mother is referred with a prolonged second stage of labout. On examination, the foetal heart sound is 120 / min, and the head is at - 1 station with severe moulding. What wll be the most appropriate management ?
A) Apply obstetric forceps and deliver
B) Apply ventouse and deliver
C) Perform LSCS
D) Start pitocin drip
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):
(Single Best Answer) Question 60: As per the Government of India guidelines, the daily dose of elemental iron recommended for prophylaxis during pregnancy is ?
A) 50 mg / day for 100 days
B) 100 mg / day for 100 days
C) 150 mg / day for 100 days
D) 200 mg / day for 100 days
Answer (Select an option above to get the answer):